Why the compensation plans differ at two firms


Why do you think the compensation plans differ at the two firms? In particular, why do you think Kaufmann's pays commissions to salespeople, while Parkleigh does not? Why does Parkleigh offer employees discounts on purchases, while Kaufmann's does not?

Assume, for the moment, that neither store pays sales commissions. Parkleigh offers an hourly wage plus the employee discount. Kaufmann's offers only an hourly wage. Do you expect Kaufmann's hourly wage to be higher or lower than Parkleigh's? Why?

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Microeconomics: Why the compensation plans differ at two firms
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