Why or why not given the knowledge of change quantifier rule, Other Subject

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Why or why not given the knowledge of change quantifier rule

Problem

Is this argument provable? ~(x)Fx / ~(∃x)Fx (or in logico-ordinary language: It's not true that everything is an F. Therefore, nothing is an F). Explain why or why not, given the knowledge of change the quantifier rule and conditional/indirect proofs rules.

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