Why it not inconsistent to claim peoples preference differ, Microeconomics

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Why it not inconsistent to claim peoples preference differ

Problem

Use an Edgeworth Box to explain why it is not inconsistent to claim that (1) people's preferences differ and (2) at their current consumption levels, their marginal rates of substitution are equal. Will the equality between marginal rates of substitution hold in the case of a bilateral monopoly? Why or why not?

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