Why does capital asset pricing model give different result
Problem: Why does the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) give a different result than Discounted Cash Flow (DCF)? Please fully explain this as I understand both CAPM and DCF, but am not sure how to put it into words.
Now Priced at $20 (50% Discount)
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The price of one-year (zero coupon) treasury bills is 93.46 percent. Assume for simplicity that bonds make one annual payment.
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Olive has the utility function U(X,Y) = X1/3Y2/3, where X is the quantity of apples consumed, and Y is the quantity of oranges consumed.
Why does the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) give a different result than Discounted Cash Flow (DCF)?
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A) What are the prices of the two bonds at this time? B) Discuss the result of part A in terms of risk in investing in bonds.
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