Questions:
1. The service industry makes up approximately what percentage of all jobs in the United States-
2. Which is not true regarding differences between goods and services?
3. Which is not true regarding differences between goods and services?
4. Which of the following services is least likely to be unique, i.e., customized to a particular individual's needs?
5. Which of the following is not a typical service attribute?
6. Which of the following attributes is most typical of a service
7. Experience Differentiation
8.32. Franz Colruyt has achieved low-cost leadership through
9. A firm producing a good is more likely to have which set of the following characteristics compared to a firm providing a service?
10. Which of the following influences layout design?
11. The largest contributor to productivity increases is ________, estimated to be responsible for _____ of the annual increase.
12. Which of the following is not true when explaining why productivity tends to be lower in the service sector than in the manufacturing sector?
13. Three commonly used productivity variables are
14. Firm A operates 10 hours each day, producing 100 parts/hour. If productivity were increased 30%, how many hours would the plant have to work to produce 1000 parts?
15. A cleaning company uses 10 lbs each of chemicals A, B and C for each house it cleans. After some quality complaints, the company has decided to increase its use of chemical A by an additional 10 lbs for each house. By what % has productivity (houses per pound of chemical) fallen?
16. Cost minimization is an appropriate strategy in which stage of the product life cycle?
17. Which of the following OM strategy/issues should a firm with a product in the maturity stage of its life cycle be least concerned with at the present time?
18. Which of the following is least likely to result in a strategy change?
19. Which of the following is not an operations strategy decision?
20. Which of the following statements regarding PERT times is true?
21. Which of the following statements regarding PERT times is true?
22. In a PERT network, non-critical activities that have little slack need to be monitored closely
23. Given an actual demand of 61, a previous forecast of 58, and an alpha of .3, what would the forecast for the next period be, using simple exponential smoothing?
24. Which of the following values of alpha would cause exponential smoothing to respond the most slowly to forecast errors?
25. A forecasting method has produced the following over the past five months. What is the mean absolute deviation?
Actual Forecast Error |Error|
10 11 -1 1
8 10 -2 2
10 8 2 2
6 6 0 0
9 8 1 1
26. Given forecast errors of -1, 4, 8, and -3, what is the mean absolute deviation?
27. The last four months of sales were 8, 10, 15, and 9 units. The last four forecasts were 5, 6, 11, and 12 units. The Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) is____________
28. Value analysis takes place
29. Which of the following makes products that are friendlier to the environment?
30. One method used to determine a product's total environmental impact from conversion of inputs through production and to disposal is ______
31. Products are more "environmentally friendly" when they are made
32. An operations manager's ethical responsibilities
33. Total Quality Management emphasizes
34. "Kaizen" is a Japanese term meaning
35. Which of the following statements regarding "Six Sigma" is true?
36. Product Focused processes
37. Value Stream Mapping
38. One fundamental difference between a process chart and a process map is that
39. Service blueprinting
40. A drawing of the movement of material, product, or people is a
41. Which of the following statements regarding "proximity" in the location decision is false?
42. Which of the following is the best example of the proximity rule that, for service firms, proximity to market is the most important location factor?
43. Which of the following worker characteristics would likely be least important for U.S. firms looking to open up call centers in different countries?
44. Community attitudes, zoning restrictions, and quality of labor force are likely to be considered in
which of the following location decision methods?
45. Which of the following methods best considers intangible costs related to a location decision?
46. Evaluating location alternatives by comparing their composite (weighted-average) scores involves
47. Which of the statements below best describes office layout?
48. Which of the following constitutes a major trend influencing office layouts?
49. Which of the following does not support the retail layout objective of maximizing customer exposure to products?
50. Ambient conditions, spatial layout and functionality, and signs, symbols, and artifacts are all
51. Balancing low-cost storage with low-cost material handling is important in a(n)
52. Which of the following requires an information system that provides inbound product identification, its destination, and routing of the product to the designated outbound vehicle?
53. Which of the following best describes Vizio's supply chain?
54. Local optimization is a supply chain complication best described as
55. The "bullwhip" effect
56. A restaurant runs a special promotion on lobster and plans to sell twice as many lobsters as usual. When this large order is sent to the distributer, the distributer assumes the large size is a trend, not a one-time event. The distributer therefore places an even larger order with the lobsterman. This is the result of
57. Giving quantity discounts based on annual income instead of single order size helps to control which supply-chain issue?
58. Which of the following is not an opportunity for effective management in the supply chain?
59. Which of the following statements regarding the production order quantity model is true?
60. The assumptions of the production order quantity model are met in a situation where annual demand is 3650 units, setup cost is $50, holding cost is $12 per unit per year, the daily demand rate is 10 and the daily production rate is 100. The production order quantity for this problem is approximately
61. A production order quantity problem has daily demand rate = 10 and daily production rate = 50. The production order quantity for this problem is approximately 612 units. The average inventory for this problem is approximately
62. Which category of inventory holding costs is much higher than average for rapid-change industries such as PCs and cell phones?
63. When quantity discounts are allowed, the cost-minimizing order quantity
64. In level scheduling, what is kept uniform from month to month?
65. Which of the following is not consistent with a pure level strategy?
66. Which of the following is not an advantage of level scheduling?
67. A firm uses the pure chase strategy of aggregate planning. It produced 1000 units in the last period. Demand in the next period is estimated at 800, and demand over the next six periods (its aggregate planning horizon) is estimated to average 900 units. In following the chase strategy, the firm will
68. A firm's demand in the next four quarters (its aggregate planning horizon) is forecast to be 80, 50, 40, and 90 units. Last quarter, the firm produced 60 units. If it uses level scheduling, the firm will.
69. It is week 1 and there are currently 20 A's in stock. The MPS calls for 300 A's at the start of week 5. If there are scheduled receipts planned for week 3 and 4 of 120 A's each and A has a lead time of 1 week, when and how large of an order should be placed to meet the requirement of 300 A's?
70. A material requirements plan contains information with regard to all of the following except
71. Each R requires 4 of component S; each S requires 3 of part T. The lead time for assembly of R is 1 week. The lead time for the manufacture of S is 2 weeks. The lead time for the procurement of T is 6 weeks. The cumulative lead time for R is ______ weeks.
72. A method of input-output control that uses a system of cards to limit the amount of work at a work center and also to control lead time and monitor backlog is
73. If an assignment problem consists of 6 workers and 7 projects,
74. In MRP, the number of units projected to be available at the beginning of each time perios refers to
75. Linking a part requirement with the parent component that caused the requirement is referred to as
76. In MRP, system nervousness is caused by
77. One of the tools that is particularly useful in reducing the system nervousness in the MRP system is (are)
78.Which of the following is a step towards integrating JIT and MRP according to the text?
79. Material requirements plan specify______________
80. Which of the following best differentiates material requirements planning (MRP) from finite capacity scheduling (FCS)?
81. If an assignment problem consists of 5 workers and 4 projects,
82. Which of the following dispatching rules tends to minimize job flow time?
83. Average completion time for a schedule sequence at a work center is the ratio of
84. Factory X is trying to use level use scheduling. If their first target were to cut the current lot size in half, by what proportion must setup cost change?
85. Which one of the following statements is true about the kanban system?
86. Kanban is associated with all of the following except
87. The priority rule that sequences jobs using the smallest ratio of due date from today to processing time is ________
88. Which of the following is an advantage of the FCFS dispatching rule when used in services?
89. The most appropriate sequencing rule to use if the goal is to dynamically track the progress of jobs and establish relative priority on a common basis is
90. A characteristics of JIT partnership with respect to quality is to
91. Which of the following is not a goal of JIT partnership
92. Which one of the following is a concern expressed by suppliers?
93. Reduction of in-transit inventory can be encouraged through use of
94. In JIT partnerships, suppliers have several concerns. Which of the following is not such a concern?
95. The word "kanban" means
96. Infant mortality in electronics follows which kind of distribution?
97. Suppose that the introduction of a preventive maintenance program is deemed cost effective. Which of the following is most likely true if the cost to actually perform preventive maintenance is very expensive?
98. As fas as maintenance costs are concerned
99. For a machine to be a good candidate for preventive maintenance
100. Which one of the following is not necessary to identify the optimal maintenance policy?