Question 1: Which of these activities is most directly associated with the employment phase of the staffing process?
a) Screening job applications
b) Deciding on finalists for a job
c) Advertising a job opening
d) Evaluating the results of a job aptitude test
Question 2: Which of the following statements is true regarding staffing?
a) The organization is the only active player in the staffing process.
b) The staffing process is composed of a series of interrelated parts including recruitment, selection, decision making and job offers.
c) The staffing process should only be viewed from the perspective of the individual (line) manager.
d) None of the above
Question 3: Which of the following statements is false regarding person-job match?
a) Jobs are characterized by their requirements and embedded rewards.
b) Individuals are characterized by their level of qualification.
c) Individuals can be characterized by their motivation levels.
d) Organizational culture is an important aspect of person-job match.
Question 4: According to the overall staffing organizations model, an example of a(n) core staffing activity is _______.
a) HR strategy and planning
b) job analysis
c) internal recruitment
d) none of the above
Question 5: According to the staffing quantity model, an organization will be __________ when availabilities exceed requirements.
a) fully staffed
b) understaffed
c) overstaffed
d) none of the above
Question 6: The essence of a BFOQ is that __________.
a) it is always illegal
b) it reduces discrimination
c) it justifies discrimination based on reasonable necessity of the job
d) it prohibits selection through use of a protected characteristic (e.g., gender)
Question 7: Disparate treatment focuses on _________.
a) allegations and evidence about the effects of discriminatory actions
b) allegations and evidence about intentions to discriminate
c) adverse impact
d) quotas
Question 8: Regarding the use of tests in staffing, it can be said that _______.
a) they are permitted by law
b) they are illegal
c) they should be adjusted by protected characteristics to be fair
d) they should be "race normed" for fairness
Question 9: In EEOC cases, a consent decree is _________.
a) mandated by law
b) court approved
c) limited to non-monetary relief
d) limited to affirmative action remedies
Question 10: Which of the following is true regarding EEO laws?
a) State (but not local) government employees are immune from lawsuits by employees who allege violation of ADA or ADEA.
b) States must pursue age and disability discrimination claims under applicable state laws.
c) A foreign company which is owned or controlled by an American employer and is doing business overseas generally also must comply with Title VII, the ADA, and the ADEA.
d) All of the above
Question 11: The primary source of common law is ________.
a) The Constitution
b) Federal statutes
c) Past court decisions
d) Federal agency guidelines
Question 12: The key to a successful rebuttal in a disparate treatment case is _________.
a) to prove adverse impact
b) to provide nondiscriminatory reasons for the practice(s) in question
c) to show the presence of a "mixed motive"
d) to prove discrimination
Question 13: A manager has collected data on sales, the economy, and taxes over a number of years, and statistically estimates an equation that describes how each of these predictors has affected staffing levels in the past. This equation is used to predict future staffing levels. This is an example of ______________:
a) regression analysis
b) ratio analysis
c) trend analysis
d) Markov analysis
Question 14: Which of the following is a likely effect of technology on employment demand?
a) Changes in the skill requirements of the workforce
b) Elimination of some jobs
c) Creation of new jobs
d) All of the above
Question 15: A manager has collected data on the dollar value of sales and has divided this by the number of FTE. Assuming this relationship will hold in the future, and using projected sales, the manager estimates the number of employees required. This is an example of ______________:
a) regression analysis
b) ratio analysis
c) trend analysis
d) Markov analysis
Question 16: Which of the following creates a problem for Markov analysis?
a) large sample sizes
b) lack of employee moves
c) poor economic conditions
d) small sample sizes
Question 17: Which of the following are likely responses to labor shortages and surpluses?
a) Decreased mandatory overtime
b) Recruitment of immigrants
c) Increases in hiring standards
d) Decreased hours of operation
Question 18: Which of the following are likely to occur during job expansion periods?
a) New hire rates increase for entry level jobs, but decrease for higher level jobs
b) Departure of some employees to take opportunities at other firms
c) Stagnation of movement through internal labor markets
d) Reductions in turnover rates
Question 19: Human resource information systems provide which of the following functions for succession planning?
a) Creating lists of employees who are ready to move into specific positions
b) Seeking out passive candidates within the organization
c) Tracking candidates across a variety of locations
d) all of the above
Question 20: Which of the following is not one of the "great eight" competencies?
a) Mechanical knowledge
b) Creating
c) Organizing
d) Performing
Question 21: A competency is ______.
a) a type of behavior that is observed on the job
b) an underlying characteristic of an individual that contributes to job or role performance
c) a latent component of the job characteristics matrix
d) a compilation of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities that make up a job
Question 22: Which of the following are unique properties of teams, from a staffing point of view?
a) Competencies are not generally useful for selection in teams because of the division of responsibility in teams
b) KSAOs for teams involve job-spanning skills because members perform multiple roles
c) Most research shows intelligence is unrelated to team success
d) Both A and C
Question 23: If tasks/dimensions are not weighted formally, then _________.
a) the job description has no value
b) AA non-compliance will result
c) all tasks/dimensions are assessed as equally important by default
d) pay scales cannot be developed
Question 24: Which of the following best represents the order of aspects important for job satisfaction identified in surveys, from most valued to least valued?
a) variety of work, relationship with supervisor, compensation, and networking
b) relationship with supervisor, networking, variety of work, and compensation
c) compensation, relationship with supervisor, variety of work, and networking
d) networking, variety of work, relationship with supervisor, and compensation
Question 25: What is the "employee value proposition?"
a) the total worth of an employee's KSAOs
b) the organization's package of rewards provided to employees
c) the next worth of all an organization's employees
d) none of the above
Question 26: Which of the following is an advantage of using job task questionnaires?
a) Use with large numbers of people
b) Highly diverse job content and formats
c) Working with top management positions
d) Working with newly created jobs
Question 27: Which of the following is an advantage of targeted recruiting?
a) it is seen as more fair
b) it ensures a diverse set of applicants
c) a small set of qualified applicants is considered
d) both a and b
Question 28: Which of the following is not a good way to manage the recruiting process for optimal legal defense?
a) require a written application from all who seek to be considered
b) require that the applicant indicate the precise position applied for
c) keep applications on hold or on file for future consideration
d) keep track of applicants who drop out of the process
Question 29: Although there are times when organizations form cooperative alliances for recruitment purposes, such arrangements are most often precluded by ____________.
a) cost factors
b) competitive factors
c) difficulty in organizing cooperative efforts
d) laws and regulations
Question 30: Which method of recruiting is most effective at reducing turnover?
a) realistic
b) targeted
c) considerate
d) branded
Question 31: OFCCP suggested actions for the recruitment process include ______________.
a) encourage white male employees to refer job applicants
b) carefully select and train all personnel included in staffing
c) eliminate the use of job descriptions
d) none of the above
Question 32: Which of the following does not have to be shown by a plaintiff in fraud and misrepresentation lawsuit related to recruiting?
a) that a misrepresentation occurred
b) that the plaintiff relied on the information to make a decision
c) that the plaintiff had perfect knowledge regarding the misrepresentation
d) that the plaintiff was injured because of reliance on the information
Question 33: Which of the following is not a common technique to increase diversity in recruiting?
a) advertising in publications aimed at women and minority groups
b) setting specific quotas for the number of non-minorities who can apply
c) depicting women and minorities in recruiting materials
d) these are all common techniques
Question 34: From a legal standpoint, it can be said that ___________.
a) the EEOC is more concerned about external recruitment procedures than internal ones
b) revised Order No. 4 does not deal with seniority
c) promotions based on subjective assessments of who is more senior are not likely to be supported in court
d) existence of "bona fide" seniority systems facilitates compliance on EEO/AA matters
Question 35: A bona fide seniority system is __________________.
a) typically banned by the EEOC
b) permitted in most cases under EEOC law even if it results in adverse impact
c) carefully defined by the law
d) based on a mix of factors include perceived loyalty, commitment, and KSAO sets in the workforce
Question 36: KSAOs which are used in making advancement decisions are stored in __________.
a) job descriptions
b) job specifications
c) talent management systems
d) ability inventories
Question 37: Which of the following statements regarding talent management systems is true.
a) they are usually based on paper files
b) they are seen as a historical tool that is not used much any more
c) they are increasingly integrated with all of an organization's human resources information systems
d) they are almost always cheap and easy to maintain
Question 38: The combination of factors that tend to place women and minorities in fewer top management positions are collectively termed __________________.
a) res ipsaloquitor
b) Jacob's ladder
c) the broken elevator
d) the glass ceiling
Question 39: Under a closed internal recruitment system, which of the following is not likely to occur?
a) Speed of decisions is faster than with open systems.
b) Contacted employees are immediately given preference under such a system.
c) Managers have less influence over the ultimate decision.
d) Overall effectiveness of the system in identifying qualified applicants will drop.
Question 40: Formal policies for promotion and other internal recruiting activities can enhance:
a) interpretive justice
b) procedural justice
c) psychological contract violations
d) extrinsic discouragement
Question 41: Applicant stock statistics for groups under analysis require calculation of percentages for __________.
a) unemployed workers
b) measures of content validity
c) availability in the population
d) the reliability of a measure
Question 42: Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of _________.
a) selection rates for the groups under analysis
b) interview rates for the groups under analysis
c) rejection rates for the groups under analysis
d) range scores for the groups under analysis
Question 43: Which of the following is a type of validity?
a) test-retest
b) coefficient alpha
c) criterion
d) parallel forms
Question 44: Which of the following statements about measurement is not correct?
a) it assigns numbers to objects.
b) it is based on rules determined in advance.
c) it measures the object not the attribute.
d) it measures constructs.
Question 45: Validity of a measure is best defined as _________.
a) the upper limit of reliability
b) the degree to which the measure does indeed measure what it is intended to measure
c) the lower limit of reliability
d) the consistency of measurement
Question 46: When considering the use of extracurricular activities as a job performance predictor, one should __________.
a) use extracurricular activities whenever possible
b) de-emphasize the use of extracurricular activities
c) use extracurricular activities mainly for selection of managerial personnel
d) use extracurricular activities when they correlate with KSAOs required by the job
Question 47: The problem with using _____ for hiring purposes is that only very poor applicants cannot obtain these, and the format is unstandardized.
a) certifications
b) biodata forms
c) letters of recommendation
d) MBAs
Question 48: An example of an assessment method which has relatively low reliability is _________.
a) biographical information
b) initial interviews
c) application blanks
d) resumes
Question 49: Which of the following is true regarding pre-employment inquiries (PI)?
a) They have little potential for being used for discriminatory purposes in the assessment process.
b) Organizations rarely make inappropriate and illegal PIs.
c) It is critical for employers to understand the laws and regulations regarding PIs.
d) The emphasis in PIs is on the illegal collection of information.
Question 50: The highest estimate of validity coefficients of unweighted applicant banks as predictors of job performance are __________.
a) 1.00
b) .80
c) .20
d) .60
e) .40