When estimating the reversion value in the year of sale why
1. When estimating the reversion value in the year of sale, why is the terminal cap rate applied to NOI for the year after the holding period?
2. Is a cap rate the same as an IRR? Which is generally greater? Why?
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1 when estimating the reversion value in the year of sale why is the terminal cap rate applied to noi for the year
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