Part 1
1. Identifying a problem and matching it with established routines and procedures for resolving it is a(n)
a. tactical decision
b. programmed decision
c. operational decision
non-programmed decision
2. When John draws on well-developed procedures in his job of grocery store inventory clerk to determine which products to stock first, he is making which type of decision?
a. tactical decision
b. programmed decision
c. operational decision
d. non-programmed decision
3. Situations with important consequences for the organization that are poorly defined and unstructured are
a. tactical decisions
b. programmed decisions
c. operational decisions
non-programmed decisions
4. When a manufacturer plans annual labor costs based on the labor union contract that has locked in employee wage rates for the year, the decision is made under a condition of
a. certainty
b. uncertainty
c. risk
d. conflict
5. When television network executives continued the Seinfeld sitcom after poor ratings in the first two season, they were making the decision under a condition of
a. certainty
b. uncertainty
c. risk
d. conflict
6. When the availability of each alternative and its outcomes are associated with probability estimates, decisions are being made under a condition of
a. certainty
b. uncertainty
c. risk
d. conflict
7. Molly is a marketing manager who is deciding how to allocate the financial resources among three different product launches over the next few years. Molly is making a(n)
a. strategic decision
b. operational decision
c. tactical decision
d. opportunistic decision
8. The first stage of decision making is
a. generating alternative solutions
b. choosing the best alternative
c. evaluating the results
d. identifying and diagnosing the problem
9. A technical decision of which machine should replace current machinery would most likely require quality and acceptance.
a. high; high
b. low; low
c. high; low
d. low; high
10. Selecting the best alternative among multiple criteria is referred to as
a. satisficing
b. optimizing
c. decision making
d. opportunistic
11. involves selecting the first alternative solution that meets a minimum criterion while involves selecting the best alternative from among multiple criteria.
a. Optimizing; high acceptance
b. Optimizing; satisficing
c. Satisficing; optimizing
d. Satisficing; high acceptance
12. Which of the following may help make the implementation phase more successful?
a. providing needed resources
b. developing communication systems that enable management to know if the decision alternative is meeting its planned objective
c. exercising leadership to persuade others to move the implementation forward
d. all of the above
13. What is the final stage in the decision-making process?
a. generating alternative solutions
b. choosing the best alternative
c. evaluating the results
d. identifying and diagnosing the problem
14. Which of the following is not one of the assumptions of rational decision making?
a. The problem is clear and unambiguous.
b. All the alternatives and their consequences are not known.
c. There are no time and cost constraints affecting the decision.
d. The decision solution will maximize the economic pay off.
15. Organization politics can limit rational decision making by
a. controlling resources
b. influencing policy
c. favoring the solution that sustains .the power of the dominant group
d. all of the above
16. Emotions and personal preferences may result in poor decisions. The two emotions that are the most disruptive to quality decision making are
a. anger and frustration
b. anger and depression
c. egotism and anger
d. egotism and frustration
17. The tendency for decision makers to be overconfident of their ability to control activities and events is known as
a. escalation of commitment
b. the illusion of control
c. intuition
d. groupthink
18. When the accounting manager depends on a gut feeling about a circumstance at work, the basis of his decision is
a. escalation of commitment
b. the illusion of control
c. intuition
d. groupthink
19. The refusal to abandon a choice from an earlier decision even when it is no longer appropriate is called
a. escalation of commitment
b. the illusion of control
c. intuition
d. groupthink
20. Which decision style is used by those decision makers who base the decision on a rational and objective analysis of data gathered from different sources to make the best possible decision from the information that is available?
a. directive style
b. behavioral style
c. conceptual style
d. analytical style
Part 2
1. What is the planning step that shows the intended actions that will be carried out?
A. objectives
B. actions
C. resources
D. implementation
2. Which of the following is not considered a benefit of planning?
A. Planning requires managers to assess the external environment to better respond to challenges.
B. An effective planning process provides an opportunity to separate the planners from the implementers.
C. The planning goals give organizational members a sense of direction and purpose.
D. Planning may help the firm reduce uncertainty by forcing managers to think long term.
3. Examining environmental factors in the planning process helps the firm
A. gain buy-in from those who will implement the plan
B. coordinate the efforts of everyone
C. provide a sense of direction
D. deal with environmental uncertainty
4. When workers participate in the planning process, they tend to
A. "buy in" and work harder
B. confuse the issues
C. bring little to the table
D. provide too much detail
5. A centralized planning process
A. should be replaced with a decentralized process in large corporations to ensure buy-in
B. can help managers understand how actions in one area have consequences for other units
C. focuses attention on different time horizons
D. ensures adequate assessment of external forces
6. Which of the following contributed to Pepsi losing the war against Coke?
A. Pepsi failed to balance its long-term objectives with short-term goals.
B. Pepsi did not encourage worker participation in the planning process.
C. Pepsi failed to assess its external environment.
D. Pepsi failed to define its priorities.
7. A well-designed plan leads to
A. success
B. identifying the resources needed for the future
C. competitive advantage
D. identification of core competencies
8. Effedive planning improves a company's control systems by
A. making assumptions explicit
B. making it possible to compare target versus actual results and take corrective action on gaps to modify future activities
C. developing "what if" scenarios
D. ensuring adequate resources are available
9. Planning that identifies different views of the future and spells out what to do in each session is referred to as
A. escalation of commitment.
B. contingency planning.
C. a control system.
D. formal planning.
10. When the Acme Company .anticipates what may happen in the future by planning four different views of the future and then spells out what to do in each of these future views, they are using
A. escalation of commitment
B. contingency planning
C. a control system
D. opportunistic planning
11. Planning helps managers to
A. be proactive
B. gain "on the job" training
C. learn to convert abstract ideas into concrete actions
D. all of the above
12. Which of the following is not one of •the five lessons companies can apply to plan for the worst?
A. Create alternative scenarios.
B. Be prepared for the unimaginable.
C. Try to estimate probabilities.
D. Try to avoid thinking the worst.
13. Separating the plan generators from the plan implementers often leads to
A. a more effective implementation
B. the development of plans that lower level managers begrudgingly try to implement
C. ensuring the wisdom and experience of those managers higher in the organization are included in the plan
D. all of the above
14. Successful planning includes which of the following?
A. centralizing the planning process
B. viewing planning as a commitment to sunk, costs
C. using both numerical: and judgmental methods
D. overanalyzing every detail to ensure effective implementation
15. In keeping planning a continuous process that is attuned to changes in both the internal and external environment, firms should consider all of the following except
A. the use of two-way feedback between managers and employees in the performance appraisal process
B. scheduled retreats of key managers and employees
C. carefully analyzing circumstances and avoiding "seat of the pants" crisis management
D. the creation of standing cross-functional committees
16. Opportunistic planning
A. is a system designed to identify objectives and to structure the major tasks of the organization to accomplish them
B. is derailed by unexpected events
C. involves programmatic actions triggered by unforeseen circumstances
D. seldom has discretionary resources
17. Which of the following is true of opportunistic and formal planning?
A. Firms that use only opportunistic planning will have no clear sense of direction.
B. Formal planning should allow for creative responses within the organized framework.
C. Jack Welch, formerly of GE, was a strong proponent of formal planning over opportunistic planning.
D. Firms should carefully choose either formal or opportunistic planning after thoughtful consideration.
18. The performance targets set during the planning cycle are
A. goals
B. procedures
C. budgets
D. objectives
19. What are the three types of actions normally planned after objectives have been established?
A. strategic, divisional, and departmental
B. strategic, tactical, and operational
C. operational, departmental, and executive
D. departmental, strategic, and mid-level
20. The SWOT analysis is used in which step of the strategic management process?
A. formulating strategy
B. implementing strategy
C. evaluating strategy
D. analyzing the internal and external environments
21. Organizing is reflected in
A. the organization's division of labor that forms jobs and departments
B. formal lines of authority
C. the mechanisms used for coordinating diverse jobs and roles in the organization
D. all of the above
22. Which dimension of organizational structure indicates who has the authority to make decisions and who is expected to supervise which subordinates?
A. unity of command
B. responsibility
C. horizontal dimension
D. vertical dimension
23. The basis for dividing work into specific jobs and tasks and assigning those jobs into units such as departments is known as
A. unity of command
B. responsibility
C. the horizontal dimension
D. the vertical dimension
24. When managers must work with managers of other units or with customers outside of their organization, they have been given
without equal levels of
A. authority; responsibility
B. accountability; responsibility
C responsibility; authority
D. responsibility; accountability
25. Production managers and sales managers who contribute directly to the bottom line of a manufacturing firm are considered
A. staff managers
B. staff authority
C. line managers
D. all of the above
26. Managers who assist others in achieving bottom-line results, but don't contribute directly to the outcomes, might include which of the following?
A. accounting managers
B. legal department managers
C. human resource managers
D. all of the above
27. Small spans of control
A. are usually associated with flatter organizational structures
B. may yield tall vertical structures that have too many levels of management separating front-line employees from top executives
C. mean more responsibility is pushed to lower levels
D. are generally seen in well-managed companies such as General Electric and NuCor
28. A large span of control works best when
A. there are routine tasks
B. there are highly trained subordinates
C. there are similar jobs with comparable performance measures
D. all of the above
29. companies can coordinate activities in a consistent way across diverse departments of an organization.
A. Decentralized
B. Centralized
C. Formal
D. Divisional
30. A management role used to facilitate communications between two or more departments is referred to as a
A. liaison role
B. staff manager role
C. line manager role
D. brand manager role
31. A(n) manager coordinates work on scientific, aerospace, or construction projects.
A. integrating
B. project
C. product
D. brand
32. Which of the following is not one of the basic organization designs?
A. mechanistic
B. matrix
C. boundaryless
D. organic
33. Which organization design has a high degree of formalization with centralized decision making a.nd rigid hierarchical relationships?
A. mechanistic
B. matrix
C. boundaryless
D. organic
34. Which organization design places an emphasis on teams that also may cross organization lines and relies on vertical and horizontal collaboration?
A. mechanistic
B. matrix
C. boundaryless
D. organic
35. Which of the following statements is true about the strategic factors impacting the choice of organization design?
A. As organization size increases, work specialization decreases.
B. Large organizations need more coordinating mechanisms than small ones.
C. Centralized structures are used in turbulent environments.
D. Organizations that use digital technology tend to be structured on a centralized basis.
36. Which organization design is based on the classical perspective of management?
A. mechanistic
B. matrix
C. bourtdaryless
D. organic
37. The linking of activities so that diverse departments or divisions work in harmony and learn from each other is referred to as
A. chain of command
B. unity of command
C. coordination
D. centralization
38. The law considered to be the most important addressing discrimination is
A. the Occupational and Safety Act
B. the Fair Labor Standards Act
C. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act
D. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act
39. Which of the following is not considered a protected class under discrimination legislation?
A. women workers
B. Asian American workers
C. Native American workers
D. young workers
40. Affirmative action
A. aims to accomplish the goal of fair employment by urging employers to make a conscious effort to hire members from protected classes
B. aims to ensure that employment decisions are not made based on demographic characteristics such as race, sex, or age
C. does not hurt people who are not members of a protected class
D. has yet to be addressed in Supreme Court decisions