Question: A 32-year-old sexually active cisgender man who has sex with other cisgender men presents to clinic for presumptive treatment of chlamydia after learning that his sex partner was diagnosed with urethral chlamydia infection. He has condomless receptive anal sex with his partner. Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding rectal chlamydia infection? In men who have sex with men, the prevalence of rectal chlamydia is generally lower than urethral chlamydia Rectal chlamydia infections should be treated with a dual therapy regimen of oral azithromycin and oral levofloxacin For men and women with rectal chlamydia, asymptomatic infection is common Single-dose oral azithromycin is more effective than a 7-day course of oral doxycycline for the treatment of rectal chlamydia