We have seen various quantitative evidence supporting the generalization that women use higher frequencies of standard linguistic forms than men, controlling for social class, age, and other factors. However, we have also seen counterexamples; for example, Trudgill's lower middle class female speakers in Norwich show a considerably lower frequency of the standard (ng)variant (=considerably higher frequency of the nonstandard (ng) variant, as it is shown in the text) than lower middle class male speakers.
In one single-spaced page, propose 2 reasons why a particular group of women might use lower average frequencies of standard linguistic variants than men of the same social class and age group. Explain as fully as possible. In addition, articulate any theoretical implications of the reasons you have proposed; do they support and/or undermine any of the 4 theoretical perspectives (the 4 Ds: deficit, dynamic, dominance, difference approaches) on language and gender?