1. Patient had a left femoral hemiorraphy for a recurrent hernia, what is the correct code assignment?
C. 49555
2. A patient was taken to the endoscopy suite. The endoscopy was passed into the esophagus and continued into the duodenal bulb. Based on this documentation, what CPT code would be selected to represent this procedure?
43200
43234
43235
43260
3. Which of the following is not coded separately from the coronary artery bypass procedure?
Upper extremity artery
Upper extremity vein
Saphenous vein
Femoropoplitear segment of a vein
4. Which of the following CPT codes should be used for an emergency curettage due to retained placenta after normal vaginal delivery?
58120
59160
49320
59840
5. How do you code a retropubic subtotal prostatectomy?
B. 55831
6. Treatment of a missed abortion, completed surgically a 22 weeks is coded as?
C. 59821
7. Which of the following CPT codes describes the surgical removal of kidney stones through an incision in the body of the kidney.
D.50060
8. The patient undergoes the closure of a nephrocutaneous fistula, how is this coded?
B. 50520
9. The patient provides a kidney to a sibling who has renal failure. An open procedure is performed. How is this coded?
B. 50320
10. Principles of ICD-9-CM coding for ambulatory care encounters includes.
A. Ambulatory care diagnoses should be coded to the highest of certainly at the conclusion of the encounter.
B. Code suspected diagnoses as if the disease or injury existed.
C. conditions previously treated and no longer existing are coded.
D.Only the most significant diagnosis should be coded.
11. Level 2 codes of the HCPCS coding system are maintained by the:
Center for medicare and Medicaid services.
12. J1020 injection methylprednisolone acetate, 20 mg is an example of a
C. Level 2 code
13. Level one of HCPCS consists of
CPT codes
14. The inclusion of a code in COT indicates that the procedure is:
Commonly performed across the country
15. Endorsed by the AMA
Reimbursed by third party payers
16. The three key components used in defining the levels of E/M services are:
History, examination, medical decision making.
17. The differences between a new patient and an established patient is whether the patient received professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group of practice
Within the past three years
18. Mary Cole, who is recovering from pneumonia, returns to her physicians for follow up. Dr. Small reviews a recent x-ray, performs a problem focus examination followed by a short discussion of findings. CPT code assigned.
99212
19. Refer to the medical decision making table in your CPT book. Given the following information determine the type of medical decision making involved. Number of diagnoses/management options _ limited, amount and/ or complexity of data reviewed _ moderate risk of complications and / or morbidity or mortality high.
High complexity
Low complexity
Moderate complexity
Straightforward
20. Joan Harrington is required by required by her insurance company to obtain a second opinion consultation prior to undergoing a hysterectomy, she presents to Dr. Marks who conducts a comprehensive history and physical examination medical decision making is moderate. Dr. Marks concurs that the surgery is necessary. Dr. Marks assigns the following CPT code for the visit.
B. 99244
20. Which code is used to report anesthesia services for a Medicare patient undergoing a tranurethal resection of the prostate?
00914
21. Cystourethroscopy with fulguration of bladder tumor (2.5 cm inside) is coded.
52235
22. A biopsy of skin and subcutaneous tissue (3 lesions) would be coded.
C.11643
23. A debridement of the skin, subcutaneous tissue and muscle is coded.
C.11043
24. Bisch of procedure
63170
25. Open reduction of fracture of the distal fibula with internal fixation
27792
26. Transurethral resection of prostate following urethral dilation.
52601
27. Repeat cry cautery of the cervix.
57510
57511
57511, 57511
5713
28. Two facial lacerations are repaired with layer closure. One is 10 cm and the other is 3 cm.
12016
12035
12052, 12054
12055
29. Esophagoscopy for removal of foreign, body is coded.
43045
43200, 43215
43215
43247
30. Simple hemorrhoidectomy, internal and external with fistulectomy.
46255
43255, 46270
46257
46258
31. Arthroscopy of knew with synovial biopsy.
01382
27330
29870
29875
32. A patient develops difficulty during surgery and the physician discontinues the procedure, identify the modifier that may be reported by the physician to indicate that the procedure was discontinued.
-52
-53
-73
-74
33. EGD with laser destruction of a pedunculated polyp in the duodenum.
43250
43234, 43258
43239
43258
34. What is the correct code assignment for ligation of four hemorrhoids?
A. 46945, 46946
B. 46946
C. 46900, 46910
D. 46924
35. Which of the following is vital for determing why an insurance company paid less than expected?
CPT code book
The explanation of benefits
Knowledge of the insurance regulation
Talking to the patient
36. To properly link the diagnosis to the service what should be listed in box 24 of the CMS_1500 claim form?
The place of service code
One linking reference number from box 21
The CPT code number
The ICD_9-CM code number
37. Which set of percentages is correct for initial hospital services, 99221 65, 99222 296, 99223 362, 99231 261, 99232 410, 99233 174
4%, 19%, 23%
13%, 45%, 42%
9%, 41%, 50%
36%, 57%, 24%
38. A claim is denied because the CPT code and place of service code do not match. Where would the coder look to solve this problem for the future?
B. Fee schedule database
39. A patient presents with a closed fracture of the supracondylar humerus and receives open treatment with intercondylar: How should this be coded?
D.24546
40. Red blood cell count, differential white blood cell count, and platelet count automated, is coded as?
C. 85041, 85004, 85049
41. An asthmatic patient is treated with two nebulizer inhalation treatment on the same day by the same physician, using prefilled vials of 0.5 mg of albuterol and 2.5 mg normal saline. How is this coded?
94640, 94640-76, J7611, J7611
94664-76
94664, 94664-22, J7611x6
94640, 94640
42. A catheter is placed into the renal pelvis for injection. The same physician perfors both the injections and the supervision and interpretation. How is this coded?
50392, 74475-26
50392, 74475
74475-26
74475
43. Magnetic resonanceimagaing cholangiopancreatograpy on a 25 year old male
74185
76498
58037
58042
44. A rapid influenza test is performed with a commercial test kit. When complete, the technician visually reads the results as positive, how is this procedure coded?
87275
87276
87400
87804
45. Some reconstructive plastic surgical procedures are performed in multiple stages. What modifier should the surgeon report when the patient is returned to sugery for a planned stage procedure?
C. 58
46. Accu-check home blood glucose monitor
A4258
E0607
A4253
E0607, A4253
47. CT of maxillofacial area, with and without contrast.
70488
70487
70450
70486, 70487
48. Two- view x-ray of sacrum and cocoyy
D. 82607, J3420
49. What is the correct code for a nonabsorption vitamin B_12 level?
82608
82607
J3420
82607, J3420
50. RS&I of bilateral extremity angiograph
75716
51. When clinical laboratory tests are reported on the same day, what modifier should be assigned?
B. 91
52. In addition to the claim submitted by the surgeon, the assistant surgeon bills for his or her services. What modifier does the assistant surgeon attach to the procedure code?
62
52
81
80
53. A female patient about undergo chemo, decided to harvest and store eggs for later attempts at pregnancy. How is the laboratory service of storage coded?
89342
89346
89343
89528
54. Visual acuity screening
99173
55. Comprehensive opthalmology evaluation for a new patient.
99204
92012
92004
92002
56. Binaural hearing aid check
92539
92591
92590
92591, 92539
57. Individual interactive psychotherapy, outpatient, 50 minutes.
D. 90834, 90784
58. EEG, awake and sleep
B. 95819
59. With the use of imaging, the patient had a percutaneous needle core biopsy of the left brest.
D. LT
60. Barium enema with KUB
C. 74270
61. Planned sigmoidoscopy with removal of foreign body under conscious sedation, procedure not completed due to hypotension. How would the physician report this?
C. 53
62. Comprehensive oral examination
D0150
D0145
D0502
D0121
63. A radiologist interprest x-ray for a community hospital. The equipment belongs to the hospital. What modifier should the radiologist append to his CPT code?
26
TC
59
52
64. Replacement of a nonprogrammable epidural drug infusion pump
62360
62362
62360, 62361
62361
65. Initiation and management of continuous positive airway pressure ventilation
94660
66. Removal of foreign body from cornea using a slit lamp
65205
65222
65205, 65222
65220
67. Cervical collar, foam, un-adjustable
L0150
L0180
E0856
L0120
68. Hearing aid, monaural, behind the ear.
V5241
V5298
V5160
V5060
69. The physician provides a patient covered by commercial insurance with a peak flow meter to use at home.
D. 58096
70. The physician performs an arthroscopic debridement of the shoulder, extensive, with chondroplasty and abrasion, arthroplasty. An arthroscopic mumford procedure is also performed. How is this coded?
11044-RT, 23120-RT
29823-RT, 29824-RT
11044-RT, 29824-RT
29823-RT, 23120-RT
71. The modifier used to report therapeutic interventional procedures on the right coronary artery is.
RT
RC
50
LC
72. The physician performs an open repair of the medical meniscus of right knee: How is this coded.
C. 27403-RT
73. Modified radical mastectomy
19307
74. The physician treats a patient who has osteomyelitis of the left scapula following a past injury. A piece of dead bone is removed from the body of the scapula. How is this coded?
A. 23172-LT
75. The physician performed a partial avulsion of the nail plate of the left thumb.
A. FA
76. Surgical sinus endoscopy with spenoidotomy
C. 31287
77. Percutaneous thrombectomy of AV Fistual Graft
36870
35331
92973
35363
78. Prosthetic aortic value placement, using CP bypass
C. 33405
79. Diagnostic lumber puncture
A. 62270
80. Catheterization of Eustachian tubes, tympanic approach
69631
69405
69405-50
69400