Q1. Wave characteristics, such as frequency and amplitude, are inherently discrete.
a. true
b. false
Q2. The ____ standard divides frequency bands in the 5.2, 5.7, and 5.8 GHz ranges into 12 channels.
a. 802.11n
b. 802.11g
c. 802.11b
d. 802.11a
Q3. ____ represents bit values as specific wave amplitudes.
a. Frequency modulation
b. Polar modulation
c. Amplitude modulation
d. Phase modulation
Q4. Most local phone service is based on a channel-sharing strategy called ____.
a. packet switching
b. route switching
c. circuit switching
d. path switching
Q5. Square waves are the preferred method of transmitting digital data over short distances, such as on a system bus.
a. true
b. false
Q6. As bit transmission speed is increased, the duration of each bit in the signal, known as the ____, decreases.
a. bit time
b. overhead
c. block time
d. modulation time
Q7. Asynchronous transmission adds one or more ____ bits to the beginning of each message.
a. stop
b. end
c. parity
d. start
Q8. RARP converts IP addresses to physical network addresses.
a. true
b. false
Q9. The ____ model was originally intended to unite disparate network standards in a way that enabled any node connected to any type of network to communicate with any other node.
a. IPX/SPX
b. SNA
c. NetBIOS
d. TCP/IP
Q10. The OSI model predates the TCP/IP model by almost a decade.
a. true
b. false
Q11. A network for an entire campus is known as a(n) ____ and includes end nodes, LANs, zone networks, the campus backbone network, and central nodes.
a. metropolitan area network
b. wide area network
c. regional network
d. enterprise network
Q12. ____ is based on the 802.3z standard and the 802.3ab standard.
a. Wireless Ethernet
b. Standard Ethernet
c. Gigabit Ethernet
d. Megabit Ethernet
Q13. The VoIP user perceives ____ as periods of silence mixed with overlapped voice signals.
a. jitter
b. latency
c. fragmentation
d. overrun
Q14. A wireless ____ connects a wireless network to a wired network.
a. bridge
b. access point
c. router
d. hub
Q15. A tool suite that primarily supports application development based on specific analysis and design models is sometimes called a(n) ____ tool.
a. early-bound CASE
b. front-end CASE
c. back-end CASE
d. mid-tier CASE
Q16. A(n) ____ searches an object code file for external function calls.
a. compiler
b. parser
c. link editor
d. interpreter
Q17. A ____ is a request to execute a specific method and return a response.
a. conduit
b. message
c. path
d. function
Q18. A(n) ____ is a collection of automated support tools to speed development and testing.
a. integrated development environment
b. linker
c. graphical development environment
d. system development environment
Q19. A symbolic debugger uses the symbol table, memory map, and source code files to trace memory addresses to specific source code statements and variables.
a. true
b. false
Q20. Programming languages, program translation tools, and debugging tools address only the implementation discipline of the Unified Process.
a. true
b. false
Q21. ____ linking is performed during program loading or execution.
a. Dynamic
b. Static
c. Early
d. Objective
Q22. Each memory page in virtual memory management is called a ____.
a. page frame
b. sheet
c. bundle
d. page tear
Q23. The OS maintains a ____ and updates it each time a partition is allocated or freed.
a. memory use table
b. memory partition table
c. memory map table
d. memory control table
Q24. ____ occurs when memory partitions allocated to a single process or purpose are scattered throughout physical memory.
a. Swapping
b. Orphaning
c. Fragmentation
d. Garbage collection
Q25. Operating systems are organized internally into layers.
a. true
b. false
Q26. In explicit priority scheduling, the scheduler always dispatches the ready thread that has been waiting the longest.
a. true
b. false
Q27. ____ store information about page locations, allocated page frames, and secondary storage space.
a. Page tears
b. Page blocks
c. Page tables
d. Page addresses
Q28. Page location in the swap space can be computed by dividing the page number by the page size.
a. true
b. false
Q29. When a(n) ____ is performed, the FMS copies all files and directories for an entire storage volume.
a. full backup
b. incremental backup
c. differential backup
d. synthetic full backup
Q30. The most common example of multiple RAID levels layered to combine their best features is ____.
a. RAID 0
b. RAID 1
c. RAID 5
d. RAID 10
Q31. Each record in a data file is composed of multiple ____.
a. tuples
b. columns
c. fields
d. records
Q32. ____ breaks a unit of data into smaller segments and stores these segments on multiple disks.
a. Data striping
b. Data mirroring
c. Data checking
d. Data cloning
Q33. A graph directory structure is less flexible than a hierarchical directory structure.
a. true
b. false
Q34. A ____ is a high-speed interconnection between general-purpose servers and a separate storage server.
a. network area storage
b. storage accelerated network
c. storage area network
d. storage area node
Q35. Users and applications view secondary storage logically as a collection of files organized in directories and storage volumes.
a. true
b. false
Q36. Java Platform, Enterprise Edition (Java EE) is a family of standards for developing and deploying component-based distributed applications written in Java.
a. true
b. false
Q37. ____ is an open standard, developed by the World Wide Web Consortium, for distributed object interaction that attempts to address the shortcomings of both CORBA and COM+.
a. XML-RPC
b. Simple Object Access Protocol
c. OLE
d. HTTP
Q38. In large networks, responsibility for maintaining directory content and answering queries is centralized to a few individuals who manage the network.
a. true
b. false
Q39. As OSs have evolved, they have incorporated less middleware functions.
a. true
b. false
Q40. ____ are composed of software components distributed across many computer systems and geographic locations.
a. Information processes
b. Information systems
c. Information networks
d. Information controls
Q41. The Internet and cloud computing change shape and can grow over time.
a. true
b. false
Q42. ____ is a collection of resources that can be accessed over the Internet by standard protocols, such as Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP).
a. The World Wide Internet
b. An extranet
c. The World Wide Web
d. An intranet
Q43. A(n) ____ is a standardized, interchangeable software module that is executable, has a unique identifier and has a well-known interface.
a. object
b. bean
c. component
d. resource
Q44. Accurate data is the most important requirement for good configuration decisions.
a. true
b. false
Q45. The ____ composes the majority of an RFP.
a. requirements statement
b. performance statement
c. design statement
d. specifications statement
Q46. A(n) longer-term power sag that is often caused by the power provider is known as a ____.
a. blackout
b. grayout
c. brownout
d. green down
Q47. A(n) ____ is a server that handles service requests from external users of applications.
a. packet-filtering firewall
b. proxy
c. stateful firewall
d. application firewall
Q48. A(n) ____ is a device that provides power to attached devices in the event of external power failure.
a. generator
b. uninterruptible power supply
c. power filter
d. rectifier
Q49. The costs of technology are usually high for developers and early adopters but then decrease slowly after introduction.
a. true
b. false
Q50. Typical ____ include salaries, rent, lease payments, supplies, and equipment maintenance.
a. capital expenditures
b. operating expenditures
c. infrastructure expenditures
d. management expenditures