NUTR 1020 Human Nutrition
1. Which of the following nutrients can directly supply energy for human use?
a. Lipids and oils
b. Fiber
c. Vitamins
d. Minerals
2. Minerals can
a. Provide energy.
b. Be destroyed during cooking.
c. Be degraded by the body
d. Become part of the body structural systems.
3. Gram for gram, which provides the most energy/calories?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Protein
c. Alcohol
d. Fats
4. Which of the following terms describes psychological influences that encourage us to find and eat food?
a. Appetite
b. Hunger
c. Satiety
d. Obsession
5. Current factors that can influence American food habits negatively are
a. More offerings of chicken and fish in restaurants as alternatives to beef.
b. The time-oriented, hurried lifestyle leading to many meals eaten away from home.
c. The variety of new, low fat products in the supermarket.
d. More published information on the nutritional content of fast foods.
6. To help pay for her college education, Lisa recently began working part-time at a local vitamin shop. She has noticed there is an entire section devoted to phytochemicals. Which statement about phytochemicals is correct?
a. Research suggests that the health benefits of phytochemicals are most prevalent when phytochemicals are consumed in dietary supplement form.
b. Phytochemicals occur naturally in foods like meat, poultry, and fish.
c. Phytochemicals occur only in "superfoods", the legal definition of which is "a food that has been scientifically proven to confer measurable health benefits".
d. Phytochemicals are a group of compounds that are not considered essential nutrients in the diet but that may convey significant health benefits.
7. A kcalorie is a measure of
a. Heat energy.
b. Fat in food.
c. Nutrients in food.
d. Sugar and fat in food.
8. Which statement best describes nutrient density?
a. Choose a number of different foods within any given food group rather than the "same old thing."
b. Consume a variety of foods from MyPyramid's FIVE MAJOR FOOD GROUPS EVERY DAY.
c. Plan your entire day's diet so that you don't over consume nutrient sources
d. Consume foods that have the most nutrition for their kcalories.
9. Which term describes failing health that results from a long-standing dietary intake that does not meet nutritional needs?
a. Desirable nutrition
b. Balanced nutrition
c. Under nutrition
d. Inferior nutrition
10. RDAs are not used in food labeling because
a. They are age and gender specific
b. They are too generic there are too many of them
c. There are too many of them
d. Their values are set too high.
11. According to the Dietary Guidelines the food groups to encourage are
a. Milk, meat, and beans.
b. Fruits, vegetables, low-fat milk, and whole grains
c. Grains, beans, and oils.
d. Fruitjuice beans, and meat.
12. Which of the following is not required on a nutrition label?
a. The amount of all vitamins and minerals for which there is an RDA
b. The serving size
c. Total kcalories from fat per serving
d. Total fat, saturated fat, cholesterols, sodium, protein, and total carbohydrate in sugars and dietary fiber
13. Most digestion takes place in the
a. Small intestine.
b. Pancreas
c. Large intestine
d. Stomach
14. What is one function of the pyloric sphincter?
a. Prevents intestinal contents from backing up into the stomach
b. Prevents esophageal contents from emptying too quickly into the stomach
c. Prevents stomach contents from backing up into the esophagus
d. Prevents intestinal contents from emptying too quickly into the colon
15. What structure prevents food from entering the trachea when you swallow
a. Esophagus?
b. Tongue
c. Epiglottis
d. Tonsils
16. What substance helps suspend fat in a watery digestive mixture, making fat more available to digestive enzymes?
a. Mucus
b. Pancreatic juices
c. Bicarbonate
d. Bile
17. Where are most digestive enzymes produced?
a. Pancreas and small intestine
b. Liver and pancreas
c. Liver and large intestine
d. Pancreas and large intestine
18. After digestion and absorption, which circulatory system carried fat and fat-soluble vitamins?
a. Enterohepatic
b. Portal
c. Lymphatic
d. Mesentery
19. The _____________________________system is made up of several glands that act in the regulation of metabolism, reproduction, water balance, and many other functions.
a. Endocrine
b. Lymphatic
c. Cardiovascular
d. Urinary
20. Which large blood vessel is the first to receive most recently eaten nutrients, transporting them to the liver?
a. Subclavian vein
b. Hepatic vein
c. Portal vein
d. Mesenteric vein
21. Individuals with type I Diabetes
a. Are allergic to insulin
b. Overproduce insulin
c. Do not respond to insulin
d. Do not produce insulin.
22. If a diet does not provide adequate carbohydrate to meet immediate energy needs, the body compensates by altering it's metabolism of other nutrients. Insufficient dietary carbohydrate can lead to elevate levels of ketone bodies. Ketone bodies are the byproducts of partial breakdown of:
a. Fat
b. Alcohol
c. Vitamins
d. Carbohydrate
23. Insulin, released after a meal is eaten by a person who does not have diabetes, will cause blood sugar levels to
a. Decrease far below normal.
b. Return to about normal
c. Increase far above normal.
d. Convert to protein.
24. In Type II Diabetes blood sugar levels remain high after a meal because
a. Too much insulin is released.
b. Muscle and liver cells are not reactive or sensitive to insulin
c. No insulin is released
d. The kidneys are not working.
25. The recommendations for the percentage of fat is ___________% of calories consumed
a. 10-15
b. 20-35
c. 40-55
d. >55
26. Fat is most commonly stored in the body as?
a. Triglycerides
b. Cholesterol
c. Phospholipids
d. Trans fat
27. Which of the following does NOT contain cholesterol?
a. Shrimp
b. Hamburger
c. Peanut butter
d. Ice cream
e. All contain cholesterol
28. Longer fat chains are generally digested in the?
a. Stomach
b. Small intestines
c. Large intestines
d. Mouth
29. Which of the following was NOT presented in the book as a risk factor for heart disease?
a. Smoking
b. Diabetes
c. Age
d. Family history
e. All are risk factors
30. Different from fats and carbohydrates, protein molecules also carry?
a. Nitrogen
b. Carbon
c. Hydrogen
d. Arsenic
31. According to the Dietary Guidelines what is the recommended percentage of protein calories in our diet?
a. 10
b. 10-35
c. 40-50
d. 70
32. The chemical bond between amino acids that form proteins is?
a. Lipase
b. Denature
c. James
d. Peptide
33. Which does NOT denature protein?
a. Heat
b. Acid
c. Cold
d. Agitation
34. When a person has severe protein deficiency they may suffer from?
a. Marasmus
b. Kwashiorkor
c. Constipation
d. Diabetes
35. The region in the U.S. with the highest percentage of overweight and obese adults is?
a. North
b. West
c. East
d. South
36. David thinks he is overweight and calculated his BMI to be 20. David should interpret this value as his being
a. overweight
b. underweight
c. healthy weight
d. obese
37. A BMI value of ________ is considered healthy.
a. under 18.5
b. between 18.5 and 25
c. between 25 and 30
d. over 30
38. Which method of assessing body fat percentage involves an electric current flowing through the body?
a. underwater weighing
b. bioelectrical impedance
c. dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry
d. skinfold thickness
39. Which of the following may help reduce blood pressure?
a. lose excess weight
b. sprinkle more salt on your food so it tastes better
c. follow a high-protein diet
d. increase processed foods in your diet
40. About 50 to 70 percent of your daily energy needs is determined by?
a. physical activity
b. thermic effect of food
c. basal metabolic rate
d. both A and B
41. The factor that most affects your BMR is?
a. how many calories you eat
b. how active you are
c. how much lean body mass you have
d. how many hours you sleep each night
42. Which of the following foods contains nonheme iron?
a. beans
b. fish
c. turkey
d. steak
43. Vitamin K plays a major role in
a. red blood cell division
b. blood clotting
c. metabolism of energy nutrients
d. synthesis of collagen
44. Which is a vitamin D deficiency disease in children?
a. osteomalacia
b. osteoporosis
c. rickets
d. beriberi
45. A goiter is the result of deficiency in which of the following?
a. Iodine
b. Chromium
c. Phosphorous
d. Manganese
46. Which is a main role for vitamin C?
a. It is involved in cell division
b. It is needed to make collagen
c. It is needed as a coenzyme involved in protein metabolism
d. It plays a role in bone growth and strength
47. Which food group is highest in vitamin C and Folate?
a. Meat and beans
b. Grains
c. Fruits
d. Milk
48. Zoochemicals are found in?
a. Fruits
b. Vegetables
c. Animals
d. Donuts
49. Which of the following groups may need to take dietary supplements?
a. Smokers
b. Pregnant women
c. People with lactose intolerance
d. Alcoholics
e. All of the above
50. The best source of carotenoids is?
a. Sweet potatoes
b. Onions
c. Apples
d. Twinkies
51. Cortical bone:
a. has a dense structure
b. has a spongy structure
c. is the site of red blood cell synthesis
d. is the protective, outer layer of bone
52. Bone remodeling refers to:
a. continual degradation and regeneration of bone
b. loss of height occurring with aging
c. bone marrow regeneration
d. use of metal pins to repair broken bones
53. For prevention of osteoporosis, strength training is:
a. recommended because the stress on the bones stimulates bone maintenance
b. recommended because it decreases estrogen levels
c. not recommended because it increases fracture risk
d. not recommended because it increases testosterone levels
54. The difference between osteopenia and osteoporosis is:
a. the bone loss of patients with osteopenia is not as severe as that of patients with osteoporosis
b. the bone loss of patients with osteopenia is worse than that of patients with osteoporosis
c. osteopenia is caused by heredity whereas osteoporosis is caused by lifestyle
d. osteopenia can be cured whereas osteoporosis is irreversible
55. This vitamin, when consumed during pregnancy, can help prevent neural tube defects like spina bifida
a. Niacin
b. Folate/Folic Acid
c. Riboflavin
d. Vitamin B-6
56. What disease is caused by a thiamin deficiency?
a. Pellagra
b. Scurvy
c. Kwashiorkor
d. Beriberi
57. Niacin is necessary to prevent
a. pernicious anemia
b. beriberi
c. scurvy
d. pellagra
58. Taking megadose supplements of vitamin B-6 can lead to
a. liver damage
b. nerve damage
c. kidney damage
d. ulcers
59. Vitamin B-12 is supplied almost entirely by
a. animal products
b. vegetables and fruits
c. intestinal bacteria
d. whole grain cereals and legumes
60. Which of the following is not a benefit of physical fitness?
a. Better sleep habits
b. Less body fat
c. Less muscle mass
d. Lower blood pressure
61. The difference between aerobic and anaerobic glycolysis is
a. aerobic glucose breakdown uses amino acids, anaerobic does not
b. the end product of aerobic glucose breakdown is lactic acid; the end products of anaerobic glucose breakdown are carbon dioxide and water
c. the end products of aerobic glucose breakdown are carbon dioxide and water; the end product of anaerobic glucose breakdown is lactic acid
d. anaerobic glucose breakdown uses oxygen, aerobic does not
62. Carbohydrate loading
a. involves loading up on carbohydrate-laden foods the day before an endurance event
b. involves little exercise and a high-carbohydrate diet the first 3 days, followed by heavy exercise and a low-carbohydrate diet right before competition
c. does not increase glycogen stores to any significant degree
d. involves a tapering in the intensity of workouts with a corresponding increase in the percentage of carbohydrate intake
63. For every pound lost during a workout, ____ cup(s) of water should be consumed during or after exercise
a. 1/2
b. 1
c. 1.75
d. 3
64. All of the following are good practices to keep well hydrated not
a. taking salt tablets and drinking plenty of fluid before the workout
b. drinking freely up to 2 hours before an event
c. consuming 1.5 to 2.5 cups of fluid 2-3 hours prior to the event start
d. consuming 0.5 to 1.5 cups of fluid every 15 minutes during the workout
65. Anabolic steroid use may cause all of the following side effects except
a. stunting growth in teenage athletes
b. cardiovascular disease
c. body fat loss
d. "roid rage" (extreme mood swings)
66. All of the following are true of anorexia nervosa except
a. distorted body image
b. decreased heart rate
c. denial of appetite
d. increased body temperature
67. Which of the following is characteristic of bulimics?
a. Binge eating
b. Have obvious symptoms
c. Tend to be very thin
d. Are almost never male
68. All of the following can initiate the problem of anorexia nervosa except
a. comments from significant others about being too fat
b. a job or profession that demands maintaining a certain weight
c. coming from a supportive family
d. leaving home and family for college
69. Which of the following is not characteristic of individuals who develop eating disorders?
a. From middle- and upper-class families
b. Highly competitive
c. From families with unrealistic expectations
d. Have high self-esteem
70. The semistarvation of anorexia nervosa results in all the following physiological changes except
a. dry, scaly, cold skin
b. lanugo hair
c. increased heart rate
d. iron-deficiency anemia
71. Which of the following is true about chronic hunger in the world?
a. There is no evidence of chronic hunger in the world
b. Hunger, by definition, is when someone eats no food for a long period of time.
c. The primary cause of hunger is poverty.
d. Hunger is the psychological and physiological state that results when enough food is eaten to meet energy needs
72. The consequences of undernutrition are most critical during
a. adulthood.
b. elementary school years.
c. infancy.
d. elderly years.
73. The major cause of undernutrition in the United States is
a. political and availability of accessible support systems
b. not enough food for everyone.
c. lack of technological advances.
d. inadequate use of biotechnology.
74. The Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children
a. provides breakfast for school children.
b. provides food vouchers and nutrition education to low-income pregnant and lactating women and their young children.
c. has not been shown to be cost effective.
d. has not been shown to reduce the numbers of low-birth-weight babies.
75. The homeless in the United States are at increased risk of undernutrition. Which of the following is true about the homeless?
a. Most of them are alcoholics.
b. Most of them are lazy.
c. Many are members of families with children.
d. All are poorly educated.
76. Treating food with gamma radiation as a preservation method is called
a. pasteurization.
b. aseptic processing.
c. food irradiation.
d. sterilizing.
77. Food commonly associated with Salmonella intoxication are
a. gravies and sauces.
b. chicken and eggs.
c. seafood and raw fish.
d. custards and cream-filled pastries.
78. Aseptic processing involves
a. quick freezing food after it is prepared.
b. drying foods to decrease water content.
c. sterilizing the package and food separately and then packaging the food.
d. the addition of chemical preservatives.
79. All of the following are good instructions for preventing foodborne illness except
a. always wash your hands after handling raw meat, fish, poultry, or eggs.
b. do not buy or use food from a bulging can.
c. when shopping, select meat, poultry, or fish first.
d. wash all utensils that have come in contact with raw meat or fish after using.
80. ____________ can cause spontaneous abortion or stillbirth because the bacteria can cross the placenta and infect the fetus.
a. Listeria
b. Salmonella
c. O157:H7
d. Clostridium botulinum
81. Which of the following agencies regulates pesticides?
a. Environmental Protection Agency
b. FDA
c. National Marine Fishery Service
d. USDA
82. The first trimester of pregnancy
a. involves a rapid increase in cell size rather than cell number.
b. is the least critical time during fetal development.
c. is a time of particular importance to avoid nutritional deficiencies and risky health choices to prevent harm to the fetus.
d. is a time when nutritional deficiencies have little effect on the developing fetus.
83. Extra calories for pregnancy are needed mostly during which trimester(s)?
a. First
b. Second and third
c. Second
d. First and third
84. Vitamin needs generally increase during pregnancy, especially for
a. folate.
b. iron.
c. Calcium.
d. pantothenic acid.
85. Consumption of non-food items such as laundry starch, ice, and dirt is known as
a. hyperemesis.
b. pica.
c. pregnancy-induced hypertension.
d. eclampsia.
86. Which of the following is a federal program for reducing infant mortality by providing nutritional support and counseling?
a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
b. Nutrition Supplement Program (NSP)
c. Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC)
d. Regional Nutrition Counseling Program (RNCP)
87. During pregnancy, symptoms such as high blood pressure, excess protein in the urine, edema, changes in blood clotting, and nervous system disorders are associated with a condition called
a. essential hypertension.
b. pregnancy-induced hypertension.
c. primary hypertension.
d. secondary hypertension.
88. Which of the following statements is important for infant feeding?
a. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months of a child's life.
b. Breastfeeding has no advantage over formula-feeding, so the latter is the feeding practice of choice.
c. Working mothers should avoid breastfeeding.
d. Cows' milk can be introduced safely when the child is 3 months old.
89. Advantages of breastfeeding include all of the following except
a. improves infant's vision.
b. reduces the risk of food allergies.
c. provides antibodies while infant's immune system is still immature.
d. decreases ear infections.
90. Women suffering from chronic alcoholism produce children with a recognizable pattern of malformations called
a. chronic cirrhosis.
b. muscular dystrophy.
c. cystic fibrosis.
d. fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).
91. Brain growth is most rapid in infancy but stops by about what age?
a. 9 months
b. 18 months
c. 24 months
d. 3 years
92. The best general approach to eating a health-promoting diet is to
a. follow the Dietary Guidelines for Americans and MyPlate.
b. avoid foods containing sugar or sodium.
c. avoid all desserts.
d. eat ample amounts of refined/processed grain breads and cereals.
93. A mineral that is often deficient in adults' diets and is linked to bone health, muscle function, mental health, cardiovascular disease, and diabetes is
a. magnesium.
b. zinc.
c. calcium.
d. iron.
94. Of older people, at least _____ percent have nutrition-related health problems.
a. 25
b. 50
c. 65
d. 75
95. Which of the following is not a good predictor of physical health status in the elderly?
a. Chronological age
b. Nutritional habits
c. Extent of physiological changes
d. Family history
96. Mack is constipated. Safe recommendations include all of the following except
a. eat 30 grams of fiber per day.
b. drink more fluid.
c. use mineral oil routinely and liberally.
d. eat more whole grains.
97. Consuming adequate ______ and ______ helps maximize the health of the immune system in elderly individuals.
a. protein; selenium
b. iron; copper
c. calcium; protein
d. protein; zinc
98. All of the following can cause apathetic eating and weight loss except
a. participation in a congregate meal program.
b. depression.
c. death of friend.
d. becoming less mobile.
99. All of the following are practical suggestions for diet planning for single and older adults except
a. buying small containers of food.
b. cooking large amounts of food, dividing it into portions, and freezing it.
c. buying family-sized packages of meat.
d. buying fruits at various stages of ripeness so they can be eaten fresh daily.
100. For cancer prevention, which of the following dietary components should be
limited?
a. Soy products
b. Omega-3 fatty acids
c. Cured meats
d. Low-fat dairy products