Response to the following:
Part:1
Questions 1 to 20: Select the best answer to each question.
1. Which of the following cases would most likely be filed under the theory of disparate impact?
A. A black employee is fired for testifying in a discrimination suit filed against an employer.
B. A white applicant is told he won't be hired because the employer doesn't like whites.
C. Black applicants are being disproportionately rejected relative to whites by a paper-and-pencil test.
D. White applicants with high test scores are rejected due to an affirmative-action plan.
2. Which of the following terms describes the best possible fit between a company's social system and its technical system?
A. Self-service system
B. Outsourcing
C. High-performance work system
D. Total quality management
3. People's right to freedom of speech is the right to
A. do as they wish in their private life.
B. refuse to do something that's environmentally unsafe.
C. be treated only as they knowingly and willingly consent to be treated.
D. criticize an organization's ethics if they do it in good conscience.
4. Which of the following categories of workers is not covered under OSHA's Hazard Communication Standards?
A. A technician servicing copy machines for most of the day
B. A receptionist changing the toner in a copier machine
C. Health-care workers exposed to latex and disinfectants
D. Production engineers manufacturing car batteries
5. The largest number of immigrants to the U.S. workforce are from
A. North America.
B. Europe.
C. Africa.
D. Asia.
6. Which of the following is a correct statement about dejobbing?
A. Dejobbing involves the use of task-based organization structures.
B. Dejobbing involves the downsizing or elimination of jobs.
C. Dejobbing involves emphasizing on detailed job descriptions which will be applicable year after year.
D. Dejobbing involves viewing organizations as a field of work to be done.
7. Which of the following decisions does not come under HRM?
A. Whom to hire
B. How to achieve sales targets
C. What training to offer
D. How to evaluate employee performance
8. Which of the following is a false statement about the Position Analysis Questionnaire?
A. It's one of the broadest and best-researched instruments for analyzing jobs.
B. It's a standardized, commercial instrument.
C. It describes specific duties and tasks that comprise the actual job.
D. It requires trained job analysts to complete it.
9. Which of the following is a false statement about the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
A. The act applies to organizations that employ 50 or more persons working 20 or more weeks a year and that are involved in interstate commerce.
B. Under the act, covered employers must keep records of work-related injuries and illnesses and post an annual summary of these records.
C. It's the most comprehensive U.S. law regarding worker safety.
D. Enforcement responsibilities for the act are divided between the Department of Labor and the Department of Health.
10. Which of the following approaches would be most appropriate when gathering information for jobs that are repetitive and involve physical activity?
A. A job analyst questions the peers about a particular job.
B. A job analyst visits the workplace and videotapes an employee performing the job.
C. A manager imagines what a well-done job would look like.
D. A job analyst visits the workplace and asks employees to show what the job entails.
11. Which of the following is a true statement about Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?
A. The act applies to organizations with 15 employees or more.
B. The act is enforced by the U.S. Department of Labor.
C. The act protects employers from employee threats.
D. The act prohibits employers from discriminating against workers due to their age.
12. The processing and transmission of digitized HR information, especially using computer networking and the Internet, is known as
A. e-business.
B. reengineering.
C. human resource information system implementation.
D. electronic human resource management.
13. One of the most common grievances that employees at Craines Tech have is that they don't get performance feedback. That is, they don't get proper information as to how they've performed and where they need to improve, and the performance goals are vague and not measurable. Which HR function does Craines Tech need to improve?
A. Employee relations
B. Recruitment and selection
C. Performance management
D. Training and development
14. Which of the following refers to the KSAOs that an individual must have to perform the job?
A. Job specifications
B. Job analysis
C. Dictionary of Occupational Titles
D. Job descriptions
15. For which of the following occupations would it be easiest to implement telework?
A. Machine operator
B. Quality management
C. Production technician
D. Graphic designer
16. Which of the following refers to an employer's obligation to do something to enable an otherwise qualified person to perform a job?
A. Reasonable accommodation
B. Reverse discrimination
C. General-duty clause
D. Utilization analysis
17. Which of the following managerial functions is often assumed by work teams?
A. Conducting performance reviews
B. Controlling finances allocated for the project
C. Making strategy-related decisions such as areas to diversify in
D. Performing inspection and quality-control activities
18. Which of the following responsibilities is associated with the HR function of support for strategy?
A. Human resource discipline
B. Human resource relocation and outplacement services
C. Human resource planning and forecasting
D. Orientation
19. Which of the following is not an action that OSHA can take, under the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
A. Issue citations and require that they be posted in a prominent place near the location of the violations
B. Conduct unannounced workplace inspections
C. Close a workplace that represents an occupational hazard
D. Assess fines ranging from $20,000 for violations that result in the death of an employee to $1,000 for less serious violations
20. Managers and economists traditionally have seen HRM as a(n)
A. source of value to their organization.
B. asset.
C. necessary expense.
D. essential component of a high-performance work system.
Part:2 Acquiring and Preparing Human Resources:
Questions 1 to 20: Select the best answer to each question.
1. Which of the following is a permissible question for applications and interviews?
A. Do you have any disabilities?
B. Do you have children?
C. What schools have you attended?
D. When did you attend high school?
2. The general method of establishing the validity of a selection method by showing that there's an association between scores on the selection measure and scores for job performance is called
A. criterion-related validation.
B. content validation.
C. reliability of the measurement and validation.
D. split-half estimate of validation.
3. To increase the readability of training materials, one should
A. add checklists and illustrations to clarify the text.
B. combine two or more sentences into one long sentence
C. combine two or more paragraphs into one long paragraph.
D. replace concrete words with abstract words.
4. Should a former employer give a glowing statement about a candidate and the new employer later learn of misconduct on the part of the employee during his or her previous employment, the new employer may sue the former for
A. defamation.
B. lack of validity.
C. misrepresentation.
D. negligent omission.
5. _______ identifies the tasks, knowledge, skills, and behaviors that training should emphasize.
A. Organizational analysis
B. Task analysis
C. Person analysis
D. Training-method analysis
6. In personnel forecasting, an effective HR professional tries to
A. predict the number and types of legal challenges the company is likely to face within the year.
B. anticipate trends within the HR field which are most likely to affect the success of current company operations.
C. develop HR policies and practices in response to anticipated moves by major competitors.
D. determine the supply of and demand for various types of human resources.
7. Which of the following correctly describes a learning management system?
A. A computer application that automates the administration, development, and delivery of training programs
B. The process of evaluating the organization, individual employees, and employees' tasks to determine what kinds of training, if any, are necessary
C. A process for determining the appropriateness of training by evaluating the characteristics of the organization
D. A process of systematically developing training to meet specified needs
8. The degree to which the information provided by selection methods enhances the effectiveness of selecting personnel in organizations refers to the selection method's
A. utility.
B. reliability.
C. generalizability.
D. validity.
9. Which of the following is a correct statement about executive search firms?
A. Executive search firms work almost exclusively with high-level, unemployed executives.
B. Executive search firms typically require the person being placed to make the initial contact with the prospective employer directly.
C. Executive search firms aren't subject to the requirements of Title VII.
D. Executive search firms almost exclusively find new jobs for people who are already employed.
10. Which of the following is not among the best ways for companies to establish a stronger recruiting presence on a campus?
A. Select a limited number of campuses on which to recruit, and return to them on a yearly basis with new job openings.
B. Establish college internship programs.
C. Select campuses within a 150-mile radius of the company's headquarters to ensure students are familiar with the company and its products or services.
D. Participate in university job fairs.
11. Which of the following tests assesses how well a person can acquire skills and abilities?
A. Aptitude
B. Personality inventories
C. Cognitive ability
D. Achievement
12. The steps required to properly execute a workforce utilization review are
A. essentially the same as those involved in the strategic planning process.
B. essentially the same as those involved in job analysis.
C. tremendously varied from organization to organization.
D. identical to the steps in the generic human resource planning process.
13. Which of the following is a false statement about using simulations as a training technique?
A. Simulations are used to teach production and process skills as well as management and interpersonal skills.
B. Simulators need to have identical elements to those found in the work environment.
C. Simulations are inexpensive to develop and maintain due to virtual-reality technologies.
D. Simulations allow trainees to see the effects of their decisions in an artificial, risk-free environment.
14. Which of the following is found in a typical behavior-modeling session?
A. Presentation of the key behaviors, videotape of a model performing the key behavior, role-plays, and a planning session
B. Presentation of key behaviors, videotape of a model performing the key behavior, participation in a case study group, and planning session
C. Lecture, videotape of a model performing the key behavior, on-the-job coaching, and practice opportunities
D. Videotape of a model performing the key behavior, planning session, coaching realistic game, and practice opportunities
15. To select a training service, the organization mails a(n) _______ to several vendors.
A. request for training
B. request for proposal
C. training-needs analysis
D. affirmative-action plan
16. Imagine that you manage a car dealership affiliated with one of the big three U.S. automakers. Given the increasing complexity and variety of today's automobiles, it's impossible to train your mechanics on the details of every potential repair problem. Thus, in cooperation with corporate headquarters, you have a training program whereby mechanics learn the basis of engine, emission, and other types of repair, but in the case of a particular problem, seek expert advice through an online computer application program. This approach is known as A. an experiential behavior-modeling program.
B. e-learning.
C. an electronic performance support system.
D. a virtual-reality simulation training program.
17. Which of the following options for avoiding an expected labor shortage has the benefit of being a relatively fast solution with high revocability?
A. Overtime
B. New external hires
C. Turnover
D. Retrained transfer
18. Three of the following would enhance recruiter effectiveness. Which would not enhance recruiter effectiveness?
A. Using realistic job previews as part of the recruitment process
B. Recruiting in teams rather than individually
C. Ensuring that recruiters are knowledgeable about company policies and procedures
D. Ensuring that recruiters provide applicants with timely feedback
19. The long-term success of diversity training is characterized by
A. unstructured programs.
B. the number of minority or disabled employees on staff within the organization.
C. training that's tied to business objectives, such as understanding customers.
D. making sure that HRM practices meet standards of equal employment opportunity laws.
20. According to the Training 2007 Industry Report, which training task was outsourced the most?
A. Instruction
B. Custom content
C. Learner support
D. Need analysis
Part:3 Assessing Performance and Developing Employees
Questions 1 to 20: Select the best answer to each question.
1. Three of the following are trends in executive education. Which one is not a trend in executive education?
A. Formal educational programs are being supplemented with other developmental activities.
B. Distance learning is being used more frequently by companies.
C. Employers and education providers are developing short courses with content designed specifically for the audience.
D. Due to increasing costs, employees are increasingly being asked to cover tuition and other program-related costs.
2. Explanation, consideration, and empathy are key determinants of
A. procedural justice.
B. interactional justice.
C. alternative dispute resolutions.
D. perceptual justice.
3. In terms of job dissatisfaction, an employee who calls in sick or arrives to work late is engaging in
A. behavior change.
B. psychological withdrawal.
C. physical withdrawal.
D. whistleblowing.
4. The primary use of assessment centers is to identify
A. decision processes and communication styles that inhibit production.
B. employees' personality types and job interests.
C. employees who have the personality, characteristics, and skills needed for managerial positions.
D. the strengths and weaknesses of team members.
5. Generally speaking, the contents of employees' e-mail and voice-mail messages on companies' systems are
A. protected and private if job-related.
B. not private, protected communications.
C. protected and private only if they're directed to parties outside of the company.
D. private, protected communications.
6. Based on the expectation that two people in conflict should first try to arrive at a settlement together, the organization has a policy of making managers available to hear complaints. Typically, the first open door is that of the employee's
A. immediate subordinates.
B. immediate supervisor.
C. peers.
D. director.
7. Which of the following is a false statement about using peers as a source of performance information?
A. Peer ratings, according to research, are highly influenced by friendships.
B. Peers are more willing participants in reviews used for employees.
C. Peers have expert knowledge of job requirements and bring a unique perspective to the evaluation, often resulting in extremely valid assessments of performance.
D. Peer ratings are particularly useful when supervisors don't have the opportunity to observe employees.
8. Which of the following is a false statement about the glass ceiling?
A. The barrier may be due to a lack of access to training programs, developmental job experiences, and developmental relationships, such as mentoring.
B. Research has found gender differences in accessing job experiences involving transitions and creating change.
C. The barrier may be due to stereotypes that hinder the development of women and minorities.
D. Research shows male managers receive more assignments involving high levels of responsibility than do female managers of similar ability and managerial level.
9. Which of the following statements correctly describes in-basket exercises?
A. In-basket exercises simulate the administrative tasks of a manager's job, using a pile of documents for the employee to handle.
B. In-basket exercises are paper-and-pencil tests designed to measure participants' communication styles and skills.
C. In-basket exercises require participants to take the part of a manager or employee in a situation involving the skills to be assessed.
D. In-basket exercises require teams of five to seven employees to work together to solve assigned problems within a certain time period.
10. The step in the career management process in which employees receive information about their skills and knowledge and where these assets fit into the organization's plans is called
A. action planning.
B. reality check.
C. self-assessment.
D. goal setting.
11. HR professionals can best help organizations avoid and defend against charges of wrongful discharge through all of three following activities. Which of the following is not a good way for HR professionals to help organizations avoid and defend against charges of wrongful discharge?
A. Designing jobs with low mental and physical skill demands to ensure low employee turnover
B. Training managers to avoid making promises before or during employment that imply job security
C. Establishing and communicating policies for handling employee misbehavior
D. Writing and reviewing employee handbooks to avoid statements that might be interpreted as employment contracts
12. Advantages of result-based measures include three of the following. Which is not an advantage of result-based measures?
A. Result-based measures are highly acceptable to employees and managers alike.
B. Result-based measures are generally less subjective than other kinds of performance systems.
C. Result-based measures are relatively easy to link to the organization's goals.
D. Result-based measures are very effective in providing guidance on how to improve.
13. If a performance measure lacks _______ reliability, determining whether an employee's performance has truly changed over time will be impossible.
A. test-retest
B. interrater
C. external
D. strategic
14. Why would an employee seek a downward move?
A. To have more authority
B. To learn different skills
C. To have greater challenges
D. To increase salary and visibility
15. An employee refuses an employer's request to falsify the contents of a report to the EEOC. The employer subsequently discharges the worker for "not following orders." In a wrongful-discharge suit, the employee is likely to argue which of the following exceptions to the at-will-employment doctrine?
A. Public policy
B. Equal employment
C. Implied contract
D. Reverse discrimination
16. Which of the following statements illustrates effective feedback?
A. "You've achieved 100 percent of your target in less than six months."
B. "Overall, your performance has been satisfactory."
C. "I don't see any progress from the last review; you're lazy."
D. "You've become careless; you came in late three times last week."
17. To improve performance of underutilizers, managers should
A. withhold pay increases.
B. demote them from their current position.
C. link rewards to performance outcomes.
D. offer temporary assignments for skill development.
18. The type of performance management system in which a company assembles performance data on an
Part:4 Compensating Human Resources
Questions 1 to 20: Select the best answer to each question.
1. The Scanlon plan is a variation of which type of incentive?
A. Gainsharing
B. Merit pay
C. Profit sharing
D. Individual
2. The National Compensation Survey is an ongoing activity of the
A. AFL-CIO.
B. Society for Human Resource Management.
C. Bureau of Labor Statistics.
D. American Management Association.
3. Three of the following are objectives of the unemployment insurance program. Which is not an objective
of the unemployment insurance program?
A. To offset lost income during a labor dispute
B. To provide an incentive for employers to stabilize employment
C. To preserve investments in worker skills by providing income during short-term layoffs
D. To offset lost income during involuntary unemployment
4. Pay specifically designed to energize, direct, or control employees' behavior is known as
A. indirect pay.
B. exempt pay.
C. empowerment pay.
D. incentive pay.
5. From which source do most retirees receive the largest percentage of their retirement income?
A. Private pensions
B. Earnings from personal assets
C. Social Security
D. Disability insurance
6. An employee produces 10 components in an hour and earns $8.00 ($.80 × 10), while an employee who produces 12 components per hour earns $9.60 ($.80 × 12). This arrangement is an example of a _______plan.
A. commission
B. straight-salary
C. differential-piece-rate
D. straight-piecework
7. In response to the growing concern over ethical issues surrounding incentive pay for executives, three of the following actions have been taken. Which action has not been taken in response to the growing concern over ethical issues?
A. Requiring companies to more clearly report executive compensation levels and the company's performance relative to that of competitors
B. Using the balanced-scorecard to design executive pay and incentives
C. Imposing strict limits on insider trading
D. Limiting the amount companies may deduct for executive and performance-related pay to no more than $1 million
8. In 2003, a company employee received an option to purchase the company's stock at $45 per share. If the stock is trading at $40 a share in 2005, the employee will most likely
A. hold on to the option, hoping the stock price will increase in the future.
B. exercise the option, receiving a gain of $5.
C. try changing the price in the original option agreement to improve the stock's performance.
D. exercise the option, receiving a gain of $40.
9. By law, what percent of assets must an ESOP invest in its company's stock?
A. 80 percent
B. 100 percent
C. 10 percent
D. 51 percent
10. On average, out of every dollar spent on compensation, about _______ cents go to benefits.
A. 45
B. 8
C. 17
D. 30
11. Which level of child care is most frequently provided by organizations with 100 or more employees?
A. The organization supplies and helps employees collect information about the cost and quality of available child care.
B. The organization offers no support within this area.
C. The organization operates a day-care center at or near the workplace.
D. The organization provides vouchers or discounts for employees to use at existing child-care facilities.
12. A system in which an employer pays a worker specifically for each unit produced is known as
A. salary.
B. gross pay.
C. hourly wage.
D. piecework rate.
13. An employee earns $10 an hour and receives a weekly attendance award of $20. That employee works 50 hours this week and thus earns a total compensation of
A. $557.50.
B. $577.50.
C. $550.00.
D. $570.00.
14. Three of the following are types of defined-contribution pension plans. Which of the following is not a type of defined-contribution pension plan?
A. Section 401(k) plan
B. Money purchase plan
C. Gainsharing plan
D. Employee stock option plan
15. Which of the following is a false statement about the Fair Labor Standards Act?
A. The FLSA permits a subminimum training wage equal to 85 percent of the minimum wage.
B. The FLSA requires federal contractors to pay prevailing wage rates.
C. The overtime rate under the FLSA is one and a half times the employee's hourly rate, including any bonuses and piece-rate payments.
D. Nonexempt employees are covered by FLSA and include most hourly workers.
16. An organization is adjusting pay to better match a local labor market in which the cost of living is rising sharply. These adjustments are called
A. rank-and-file adjustments.
B. green-circle rates.
C. pay differentials.
D. bonuses.
17. Which act permits a lower training wage, which employers may pay to workers under the age of 20 for a period of up to 90 days?
A. ADA
B. FMLA
C. ERISA
D. FLSA
18. Due to increasing diversity within the workplace, many employers are extending benefits to
A. anyone living within the employee's household.
B. extended-family members.
C. domestic partners.
End of exam
D. independent contractors.
19. Which of the following is a false statement about key jobs?
A. Key jobs have many incumbents within the organization.
B. Key jobs are common to many organizations.
C. Key jobs are jobs on which it's possible to obtain market-pay survey data.
D. Key jobs are relatively stable in content.
20. Three of the following are vesting rights. Which is not a vesting right?
A. The right to a pension at retirement
B. A guarantee that the employer won't switch the pension plan from defined-benefit to defined-contribution plan
C. The right to a pension regardless of whether or not the employee remains with the employer until retirement
D. In most cases, a waiting period of no more than five years or a three- to seven-year period, with 20 percent in the third and each year thereafter
Part:5 Meeting Other HR Goals
Questions 1 to 20: Select the best answer to each question.
1. Under the Taft-Hartley Act, three of the following are unfair labor practices on the part of the union.
Which is not an unfair labor practice on the part of the union, under the Taft-Hartley Act?
A. Calling or visiting employees at home for the purpose of promoting union membership or activities
B. Terminating an existing contract and striking for a new one without notifying the employer, the FMCS, and the state mediation service
C. Mass picketing in such numbers that nonstriking employees physically can't enter the workplace
D. Threatening employees with physical injury or job loss if they don't support union activities
2. Which of the following is a correct statement about inpatriates?
A. Inpatriates are employees transferred from a company's site in one state to another state within the United States.
B. Inpatriates are employees from one division of the company being moved to another division.
C. Inpatriates are foreign employees who come to the United States to work for the U.S.-based parent company.
D. Inpatriates are employees from countries other than the parent country placed in facilities of other countries.
3. Which of the following is not a measure for an HRM audit for staffing?
A. Treatment of applicants
B. Fairness of existing job evaluation system in assigning grades and salaries
C. Timeliness of referring qualified workers to line supervisors
D. Anticipation of personnel needs
4. Which of the following is an advantage of a relational database?
A. It helps people arrive at decisions that reflect expert knowledge.
B. Users can file or retrieve information according to any field across different bases.
C. Databases are stored in a central location.
D. Information is stored in one large file.
5. High-performance work systems emphasize three of the following. Which is not emphasized by highperformance work systems?
A. Career management
B. Development
C. Training
D. Silo thinking
6. Which of the following is a false statement about international labor relations?
A. Day-to-day decisions about labor relations are usually handled by each foreign subsidiary.
B. U.S. organizations, in comparison with European organizations, exert more centralized control over labor relations in the various countries where they operate.
C. In countries such as Germany, management has an incentive to build cooperative relationships because labor representatives participate in company decision-making activities and sit on companies' boards of directors.
D. Most U.S. organizations, in contrast to European organizations, bargain with a union representing an entire industry's employees, rather than with local union.
7. Union membership in the United States peaked in the
A. 1980s.
B. 1960s.
C. 1950s.
D. 1990s.
8. Three typical questions asked for assessing candidates for overseas assignments about family considerations are among the following. Which is not a typical question about family considerations for an overseas assignment candidate?
A. How many moves has the family made in the past among different cities or parts of the United States?
B. How is each member of the family reacting to this possible move?
C. What is the spouse's goal in this move?
D. Can the candidate work without supervision?
9. The Hofstede dimension that deals with the degree to which a culture prefers structured conditions is
A. power distance.
B. uncertainty avoidance.
C. individualism.
D. risk aversion.
10. Which of the following employee groups is most likely to be excluded by the NLRB from participating in organizing activities and being a member of the bargaining unit?
A. Employees with certain supervisory duties
B. Employees covered by multiple employers
C. Employees who have been on strike for economic reasons for less than one year and who have been replaced by other employees
D. Employees in multiple facilities within a single employer
11. Recruitment and selection activities within a high-performance organization include three of the following. Which is not a recruitment and selection activity within a high-performance organization?
A. Selection methods that concentrate on identifying technical skills only
B. Finding employees who are enthusiastic about and able to contribute to teamwork, empowerment, and knowledge sharing
C. Finding employees who innovate, share ideas, and take initiative
D. Selection methods that include group interviews, open-ended questions, and psychological tests
12. Which of the following statements about expert systems is false?
A. Expert systems deliver high-quality decisions at a high cost.
B. Expert systems can increase efficiency by enabling fewer or less-skilled employees to do work that otherwise would require many highly skilled employees.
C. Expert systems provide consistency in decision making.
D. Expert systems help avoid the errors that can result from fatigue and decision-making biases.
13. The most notable disadvantage for virtual expatriates is the
A. isolation that comes with never returning to their home countries.
B. difficulty they'll experience in building relationships with host-country personnel.
C. amount of time they must spend away from friends and family while on assignment.
D. loss in income they'll experience as a result of accepting their overseas assignment.
14. Which of the following is not an HRM application?
A. Decision support systems
B. Customer relationship support systems
C. Expert systems
D. Transaction processing
15. When negotiating their first labor contract, over _______ of parties are unable to reach an agreement.
A. one-third
B. one-half
C. one-fourth
D. three-fourths
16. Which of the following is a false statement about grievance procedures?
A. Under the duty of fair representation, the union must give equal representation to all members of the bargaining unit, whether
or not they actually belong to the union.
B. The merits of an arbitrator's ruling can't be appealed to the courts.
C. Grievance procedures generally have several steps prior to arbitration.
D. The majority of grievances are settled during the earlier steps of the process.
17. Which of the following is a false statement about the performance management process across national boundaries?
A. Although employees around the world appreciate feedback, U.S. employees are generally much more used to direct feedback than are employees in other countries.
B. The extent to which managers measure performance varies from one country to another, with some organizations having to update their performance plans more often than once a year.
C. While the measures used may vary from country to country, the legal requirements remain the same as those in the United States.
D. The general principles of performance management apply in most countries, but the specific methods that work in one country may fail in another.
18. Which of the following is a false statement regarding cross-cultural preparation needed during the phases of an international assignment?
A. Preparation for departure includes language instruction and an orientation to the foreign country's culture.
B. Preparation is required for the return home.
C. Preparation is required only for the employees, not their families.
D. Training may range from lectures for employees and their families to visits to culturally diverse communities.
19. Which of the following is not appropriate using e-HRM?
A. Online surveys
B. Online grievance redressal
C. Online recruitment
D. Online testing
20. A country that serves as the home for a corporation's headquarters is referred to as the _______country.
A. host
B. third
C. parent
D. first
Part 6: Answer each of the following questions in one or more complete paragraphs.
1. Outline and explain the four steps of the career management process.
2. Describe and discuss the family friendly schemes that fall into the category of other employer-provided benefits.
3. Briefly discuss the process of organizing a union, including the typical strategies adopted by management and union representatives.
4. Compare the following employment interview approaches:
• Nondirective interview
• Structured interview
• Situational interview
• Behavioral descriptive interview
• Panel interview
Human Resources Management
Part 7: Answer each of the following questions in about five to seven sentences.
1. Summarize the right-to-work provisions of the Taft-Hartley Act and their effects on organized labor in general.
2. Briefly describe the Fleishman Job Analysis System.
3. What is a transition matrix, and what is it used for?
4. Describe the Scanlon Plan.
5. Outline the emotional cycle typically experienced by employees who are posted overseas.
6. Compare the advantages of internal hiring as opposed to external hiring.
7. In establishing pay structures, what is benchmarking and how is it useful to human resource managers?
8. Explain the concepts of validity and reliability. Offer simple examples.
9. Compare the expectations and assumptions one finds in the traditional psychological contract and the currently predominant psychological contract.
10. Describe the nature of a learning organization.