Mark sells some land to Frank. Unaware of the recording system, Frank doesn't record his deed. A few days later, Mark sells the same piece of property to Rose, who promptly records her deed.
- Who has good title to the land, Frank or Rose? Why ?
- Does Frank have any legal recourse in this situation? Why?
- Would the result be the same if Mark had deeded the property to Rose as a gift?
- What's the purpose of the "first to record, first in right" rule?