Ldquothe factor-price equalization theorem indicates that
“The factor-price equalization theorem indicates that with free-trade the real wage earned by labor becomes equal to the real rental rate earned by landowners.” Is this correct? Why or Why not? Explain.
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in the neoclassical growth model we express the investment function as i sfk where i is investment per worker s is the
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ldquothe factor-price equalization theorem indicates that with free-trade the real wage earned by labor becomes equal
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