In the text, it is stated that electrical energy is more available to do useful work through a rotating shaft of an 90.0% efficient electrical motor than is an equivalent amount of fuel chemical energy used to power the rotating shaft of an internal combustion engine with an energy conversion efficiency of 20.0%.
However, if the chemical fuel is supplied to a fuel cell that converts it directly into electrical energy with a 90.0% efficiency, would the chemical energy of the fuel now have a higher availability than an equivalent amount of electrical energy?