If a function fx is defined for all real x and has an
1.If a function f(x) is defined for all real x and has an inverse f-1(x), does it necessarily follow that also g(x) = [f(x)2] has an inverse g-1(x)?Explain why it does, or given an example when it does not.
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1if a function fx is defined for all real x and has an inverse f-1x does it necessarily follow that also gx fx2 has an
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