Problem
I. What does Aristotle say is the "aim of statecraft" (i.e. government) and the "highest of all realizable goods" (paragraph 8)? Why does he think happiness also requires external prosperity (paragraph 23)? Finally, how does he ultimately define "a happy man" (paragraph 32)?
II. In his section on the primacy of statecraft, Aristotle makes a number of assertions regarding the relationship of the happiness of the individual to the welfare (or happiness) of the state. Clarify as much as possible the relationship of the individual's happiness to that of the state. How can a state be happy? Is the term relevant to anything other than an in- dividual? Does Aristotle think that the individual's interests should be subservient to the state's?