Part A - Multiple Choice Questions
1. Illegal actions are:
a. seldom unethical.
b. not related to ethics.
c. usually unethical.
d. not unethical.
2. The purpose of law is to:
a. punish us when our actions break the law.
b. provide a way of measuring our actions.
c. provide moral decision-making standards.
d. a and b only.
3. The quality of being virtuous is called:
a. empathy.
b. morality.
c. utilitarianism.
d. sympathy.
4. Which definition is correct for medical practice acts?
a. the practice of medicine in a particular state, including the requirements and methods of certification
b. the practice of medicine in a particular state, including the requirements and methods of licensure
c. the practice of medicine in all 50 states and what constitutes unprofessional conduct
d. the practice of medicine in all fifty states
5. The study of ethics includes the use of:
a. moral judgments.
b. moral principles.
c. logic.
d. All of the above.
6. Which definition best describes utilitarianism?
a. based on moral entitlements by virtue of being human
b. an ethical theory based on the principle of the greatest good for the greatest number
c. a legal ruling based on small portions of society
d. a legal ruling based on the principle of the greatest good for the greatest number
7. Rights-based ethics emphasizes the:
a. rights of society as a whole.
b. character traits of persons.
c. individual rights of persons.
d. duty of persons to adhere to laws.
8. The purpose of a cost/benefit analysis in relation to medical care is to:
a. provide an estimate of the cost of a treatment.
b. justify only the benefit of a treatment.
c. make sure no one "falls through the cracks" for treatment.
d. justify the cost of a treatment as compared to the benefit.
9. The individual states:
a. may vary on how they interpret and implement state laws.
b. may vary on how they interpret and implement federal laws.
c. must administer federal law the same.
d. a and c only.
10. Statutes are laws passed by:
a. the state legislature.
b. Congress or the state legislature.
c. the President.
d. Congress.
11. Common law is established through:
a. federal law.
b. court decision.
c. municipal decision.
d. state decision.
12. Civil law includes:
a. contracts.
b. medical malpractice.
c. torts.
d. All of the above.
13. Civil law is commonly handled and settled:
a. by the judge.
b. by the federal government.
c. by the governor.
d. outside the courtroom.
14. Action taken to confine a patient against his or her will is:
a. assault.
b. battery.
c. false imprisonment.
d. defamation.
15. Professional exercise of the type of care that a reasonable person would use in a similar circumstance is:
a. negligence.
b. the standard of care.
c. an unintentional tort.
d. a breach.
16. Which of the following best defines an expressed contract?
a. Agreement is shown through inference by signs, inaction, or silence.
b. Failure to comply with the terms of the agreement.
c. Agreement is entered into orally (clearly stated) or in writing.
d. All of the above.
17. The medical practice acts are established by the:
a. licensed physicians of a state.
b. federal government.
c. state medical board.
d. state legislature.
18. The board of examiners in each state grants licensure through:
a. endorsement.
b. reciprocity.
c. examination.
d. All of the above.
19. Successful completion of the National Board Medical Examination (NBME) provides:
a. certification.
b. reciprocity.
c. registration.
d. endorsement.
20. Medicare/Medicaid fraud, rape, murder, larceny, and narcotics convictions are examples of crimes that could lead to:
a. a license being endorsed.
b. a license being revoked.
c. reciprocity of a license.
d. All of the above.
21. A voluntary process in which an agency requests an official review of its operation is called:
a. examination.
b. accreditation.
c. reciprocity.
d. endorsement.
22. The ordinary skill and care that medical practitioners must use is called:
a. the standard of care.
b. the prudent person rule.
c. the statute of limitations.
d. confidentiality.
23. Confidentiality involves:
a. providing information by phone when requested by a consulting physician.
b. keeping private all information about a person and not disclosing it to a third party.
c. disclosing private information about a person to a third party only when a patient's written consent is given.
d. b and c only.
24. An adult who acts in the court on behalf of a child in litigation is called:
a. a guardian ad !item.
b. a Good Samaritan.
c. respondeat superior.
d. a prudent person.
25. Guidelines for the practice of a profession are called:
a. scope of practice.
b. respondeat superior.
c. guardian ad litem.
d. All of the above.
Part B - Multiple Choice Questions
1. Third-party payers are:
a. hospitals.
b. insurance companies.
c. patients.
d. physicians.
2. In a managed care organization, financial risk is shared by the:
a. organization.
b. physician.
c. hospital.
d. All of the above.
3. Managed care organizations may attempt to limit a patient's:
a. referrals to specialists.
b. choice of hospitals.
c. length of stay in a hospital.
d. All of the above.
4. Capitation is:
a. limitation of all services for care to a fixed dollar amount.
b. a fixed amount the managed care organization may charge the patient for membership in the organization.
c. a fixed monthly fee paid to the healthcare provider for providing patient services.
d. an additional payment for services paid directly by the patient at the time of service.
5. Medicaid is a:
a. federal program of care for the poor implemented by the states.
b. locally implemented program of indigent care.
c. federally implemented program for indigent care.
d. state-funded program for indigent care.
6. Diagnosis-related groups refer to:
a. limiting care to a set number of days.
b. limiting care to a certain number of persons with a diagnosis.
c. persons without funds.
d. the classification of patients of illness by diagnosis.
7. Physicians may:
a. refuse to treat patients, except in emergencies.
b. not refuse to treat patients.
c. withdraw from a contract if the patient is uncooperative.
d. a and c only.
8. A physician can turn away patients that:
a. have AIDS.
b. are emergencies.
c. they have not agreed to treat.
d. are indigent.
9. Abandonment can be avoided by:
a. writing to another doctor about the case.
b. giving formal notice of withdrawal from a case.
c. declaring the patient indigent.
d. giving informal notice of withdrawal from a case.
10. The physician who believes that his or her AIDS patient may place the health of others in jeopardy has an ethical obligation to:
a. persuade the patient to inform his or her partner(s).
b. call the local health department.
c. notify the patient's partner.
d. notify the local police department.
11. A report of an HIV or AIDS diagnosis must be completed by the:
a. local health department.
b. patient's family.
c. patient.
d. physician.
12. Medical ethicists currently encourage healthcare providers to:
a. maintain falsehoods to protect the patient or family.
b. focus on the consequences of an action while protecting the patient.
c. apply the principles of justice.
d. b and c only.
13. Performing a wrong and illegal act is considered:
a. malfeasance.
b. misfeasance.
c. nonfeasance.
d. feasance.
14. Negligence is composed of four elements:
a. malpractice, misfeasance, dereliction of duty, and damages.
b. malpractice, misfeasance, nonfeasance, and malfeasance.
c. duty, dereliction of duty, direct or proximate cause, and damages.
d. duty, dereliction of duty, nonfeasance, and malfeasance.
15. The standard of care for physicians and other healthcare professionals is determined by:
a. a board of physicians appointed by the local chapter of the AMA who practice in the same medical specialty.
b. the AMA.
c. the local hospital.
d. what members of the same profession would do in a similar situation within the same geographic area.
16. The thing speaks for itself applies to the law of negligence and is the doctrine of:
a. compensatory damages.
b. respondeat superior.
c. res ipsa loquitur.
d. preponderance of evidence.
17. To win a wrongful death case, the plaintiff must prove:
a. negligence.
b. nominal damages.
c. proximate cause of death.
d. malpractice.
18. Assumption of risk is the legal defense:
a. used by the defendant in a case to prove innocence from injury.
b. that bases the recovery of damages by the plaintiff on the amount of fault of the defendant.
c. that determines that the patient was fully or partly at fault for the injury, and no damages may be recovered.
d. that prevents the plaintiff from recovering damages if he or she accepts a risk associated with the activity.
19. Public duties for the physician include reporting:
a. communicable illnesses or diseases.
b. births and still births.
c. deaths and injuries.
d. All of the above.
20. A death certificate must include the:
a. name of the parents of the deceased.
b. date and time of death.
c. location of the place of death.
d. All of the above.
21. A medical examiner is a:
a. nurse practitioner.
b. lawyer.
c. physician.
d. physician assistant.
22. Which of the following is/are required by the National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986?
a. the measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine
b. the hepatitis A vaccine
c. the polio virus vaccine, live
d. a and c only.
23. Failure to report a suspected case of child abuse may result in a charge of:
a. child abuse.
b. misdemeanor.
c. felony.
d. manslaughter.
24. Injuries, fractures, pain in the genital area, and weight loss may be signs of:
a. physical abuse.
b. exploitation.
c. psychological abuse.
d. abandonment.
25. Chain of evidence refers to all of the following except:
a. clothing evidence that is clean and dry.
b. documentation in the medical record of date and time the evidence was obtained.
c. evidence that has been kept in locked storage until required.
d. clearly labeled evidence with name, date, and time.
Part C - Multiple Choice Questions
1. Employment-at-will allows the:
a. employee to quit at any time.
b. employer to terminate the employee at any time.
c. a and b only.
d. None of the above.
2. Title VII affects all aspects of _______ in institutions that receive federal assistance, such as Medicare and Medicaid.
a. patient-care
b. employment
c. religious-affiliated colleges
d. pregnancy
3. The Civil Rights Act of 1991 permits the court to award _______ to mistreated employees.
a. punitive damages
b. compensatory damages
c. prison sentences
d. a and b only.
4. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 requires the employer to make:
a. every possible accommodation for disabled employees.
b. no accommodations for disabled employees.
c. accommodations even if they are a hardship to the employer.
d. reasonable accommodations for disabled employees.
5. Rules to protect healthcare workers from bloodborne pathogens are regulated by the:
a. EEOC.
b. HMO.
c. OSHA.
d. EPA.
6. COBRA of 1985 provides that a company with 20 or more employees must provide extended healthcare insurance to terminated employees for up to:
a. 1 year, usually at the employee's expense.
b. 18 months, usually at the employee's expense.
c. 18 months at the employer's expense.
d. 1 year at the employer's expense.
7. The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 regulates employee benefits such as:
a. hours that are worked.
b. payment for overtime work.
c. minimum wage.
d. All of the above.
8. The Equal Pay Act of 1963 makes it illegal for an employer to discriminate on the basis of:
a. gender.
b. nationality.
c. age.
d. race.
9. Medical record management requires:
a. proper filing and storage.
b. accuracy.
c. confidentiality.
d. All of the above.
10. Patient information in the medical record should include:
a. a record of divorces.
b. the date of birth.
c. the date of marriage.
d. the date of the spouse's birth.
11. Which of the following is NOT proper protocol for correcting medical records?
a. The incorrect information should be neatly erased or correction fluid should be used.
b. A single line should be drawn through the error and the correct information should be written above it.
c. The person making the correction should put the date of the change in the chart.
d. The person updating the record should indicate their initials for the change being made.
12. Federal reimbursement guidelines require that all medical records be completed within:
a. 30 days following the patient's discharge from a hospital.
b. 15 days following the patient's discharge from a hospital.
c. 60 days following the patient's discharge from a hospital.
d. 45 days following the patient's discharge from a hospital.
13. For the court's purpose, if documentation does not appear in the medical record:
a. the court will not use the medical record against the healthcare provider.
b. it can be documented at a later date without harm.
c. it did not occur.
d. All of the above.
14. Ownership of the medical record usually remains with the:
a. patient.
b. physician.
c. court.
d. All of the above.
15. The Privacy Act of 1974 protects private citizens from distribution of information about themselves by the federal government except for that which is received from:
a. hospitals.
b. Medicare or Medicaid.
c. privately owned clinics.
d. Veterans Administration hospitals.
16. All medical records should be stored for:
a. 10 years from the date of the last entry.
b. 5 years from the date of the last entry.
c. 23 years from the date of the last entry.
d. 7 years from the date of the last entry.
17. A healthcare organization covered under HIPAA regulations is a:
a. healthcare plan.
b. covered entity.
c. PPO.
d. HMO.
18. The individual or group that provides or pays for the patient's medical care is the:
a. healthcare plan.
b. Office of Civil Rights.
c. covered entity.
d. patient.
19. The use of communication and information in medical practice, research, and education is called:
a. the privacy rule.
b. medical informatics.
c. covered entities.
d. sanctions.
20. The objective of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1998 is to:
a. promote medical savings accounts.
b. simplify the administration of health insurance.
c. combat fraud, abuse, and waste in healthcare.
d. All of the above.
21. Which title of HIPAA most affects confidentiality issues for healthcare providers?
a. Title I: Insurance Portability
b. Title II: Administrative Simplification
c. Title III: Medical Savings and Tax Deduction
d. Title IV: Group Health Plan Provisions
22. Protected health information relates to:
a. future individually identifiable health information.
b. past individually identifiable health information.
c. present individually identifiable health information.
d. All of the above.
23. Healthcare fraud alerts are issued by the:
a. Inspector General of the HHS.
b. Attorney General of the United States.
c. Postmaster General of the United States.
d. Surgeon General of the United States.
24. An exception to the release of information policy under HIPAA would allow information to be released to:
a. the military on induction of a service person.
b. a news reporter reporting a crime.
c. the police investigating a crime.
d. a priest or minister for the purpose of religious counseling.
25. The original intent of HIPAA was to:
a. protect medical records and billing.
b. provide easier access of medical records for the patient.
c. protect computerized medical records and billing.
d. b and c only.
Part D - Multiple Choice Questions
1. Applied ethics relates to:
a. social utility.
b. common sense.
c. healthcare professions.
d. religious beliefs.
2. Illegal acts are:
a. usually unethical.
b. frequently ethical.
c. always ethical.
d. all of the above.
3. The father of medicine, who wrote a statement of principles for his medical students to follow, is:
a. Semmelweis.
b. Nuremberg.
c. Hammurabi.
d. Hippocrates.
4. An allegation of a criminal act by a physician requires that the:
a. physician be given a warning.
b. act be reported to the state licensing board or governmental agency.
c. the action be reported to the physician's colleagues.
d. All of the above.
5. The concern for the human subject in medical experimentation is the result of the:
a. Declaration of Geneva.
b. Nuremberg Code.
c. Code of Hammurabi.
d. Declaration of Helsinki.
6. In a double-blind test:
a. the experimenter knows who is getting the research treatment.
b. the patient knows who is getting the research treatment.
c. both the experimenter and the patient know who is getting the research treatment.
d. neither the experimenter nor the patient knows who is getting the research treatment.
7. The gestational period is the:
a. time after birth.
b. time from conception to birth.
c. time before conception.
d. All of the above.
8. The most common legal and ethical concern related to AID is:
a. legitimacy of the child and its support.
b. legitimacy of the procedure.
c. the possibility of battery by the parent.
d. lack of consent by the potential mother.
9. In vitro fertilization occurs as a result of:
a. ovum and sperm combining inside the female body.
b. implantation of the fertilized ovum in the uterus.
c. growth of the fertilized ovum in the laboratory.
d. b and c only.
10. The use of fertility drugs:
a. decreases the chance of multiple births.
b. increases the chance of multiple births.
c. rarely increases the chance of a pregnancy.
d. does not change the chance of multiple births.
11. A woman's right to privacy, including the right to an abortion, is guaranteed by:
a. Roe v. Texas.
b. Griswold v. Roe.
c. Roe v. Wade.
d. Griswold v. Connecticut.
12. Sterilization requires:
a. written consent.
b. a mentally competent adult.
c. consent from the spouse.
d. a and b only.
13. A legal death is a:
a. thermal death.
b. brain death.
c. respiratory death.
d. cardiac death.
14. According to the brain-oriented death definition, death occurs when:
a. the brain stem is the only portion continuing to function.
b. heart action is the only remaining function.
c. breathing is the only remaining function.
d. there is irreversible cessation of all brain function.
15. Irreversible coma includes all of the following criteria except:
a. spontaneous movements or breathing.
b. no reflexes, with fixed dilated pupils.
c. lack of eye movement and deep tendon reflexes.
d. unreceptive and unresponsive to painful stimuli.
16. Which action is considered active euthanasia?
a. allowing the individual to die naturally without medical support
b. intentionally foregoing life-sustaining treatment
c. providing a terminally ill individual with a means for suicide
d. intentionally killing a terminally ill individual
17. Withdrawing life-sustaining treatment refers to:
a. gradually discontinuing feeding.
b. not starting artificial methods of maintaining life.
c. gradually discontinuing ventilation.
d. discontinuing artificial methods of maintaining life.
18. The intentional killing of the terminally ill person is called:
a. ordinary means.
b. active euthanasia.
c. passive euthanasia.
d. b and c only.
19. What is fraud?
a. a failure to act with the level of care that someone of ordinary discretion would have behaved
b. intentional deception or injury to another person
c. a wrongful act or an infringement of a right leading to civil legal liability
d. a wrongful act that results in damage to a person's reputation or property
20. Under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, what repercussion will occur in hospitals with high infection rates?
a. The Medicare reimbursement rate will decrease.
b. The Center for Disease Control will intervene.
c. The Joint Commission accreditation will be revoked.
d. The hospital will be forced to close its doors.
21. What is the highest percentage of income an individual may pay for health insurance under the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act?
a. 8%
b. 11%
c. 9%
d. 10%
22. What is the name of the standard measurement of healthcare costs?
a. Standard and Poor's Financial Index
b. Copayment
c. Deductible
d. Milliman Medical Index
23. What is the role of robotics in surgical procedures?
a. Robotics replace the surgeon's skills.
b. Robotics enhance the surgeon's skills.
c. Robotics automate the procedure.
d. Robotics decrease surgical errors.
24. Health benefits offered by medical exchanges include:
a. occupational nursing.
b. hospitalizations.
c. skilled nursing care.
d. assisted living.
25. All of the following are preventable medical errors except:
a. needle infections.
b. in-hospital cardiac arrest.
c. wrong-site surgical procedures.
d. incorrect diagnosis.