PART A: Multiple Choice Questions
Q1. If the yield for the following reaction, 2KClO3(s) →2KCl(s) + 3O2(g), is 65.0%, how many moles of KClO3 are needed to produce 1 mole of O2?
A) 0.433 moles
B) 0.650 moles
C) 0.667 moles
D) 1.03 moles
E) 2.31 moles
Q2. Which of the following is a true statement?
A) A p-orbital has a spherical boundary surface.
B) An s-orbital becomes denser as the distance from the nucleus increases.
C) An s-orbital has two lobes on opposite sides of the nucleus.
D) An electron in an s-orbital has zero probability of being found at the nucleus.
E) An electron in a p-orbital has zero probability of being found at the nucleus.
Q3. A solution that is 167 mM (millimolar) NaCl(aq) is isosmotic with plasma. This means that cells neither swell nor shrink in this solution. How many grams of sodium chloride are required to make up 100.0 mL of isosmotic NaCl(aq)? The molar mass of NaCl is 58.44 g/mol.
A) 0.976 g
B) 5.84 g
C) 9.76 g
D) 16.7 g
E) 28.6 g
Q4. Of the following equilibria, only _______ will shift to the left in response to a decrease in volume.
A) H2(g) + Cl2(g)
2HCl(g)
B) 2Fe2O3(s)
4Fe(s) + 3O2(g)
C) N2(g) + 3H2(g)
2NH3(g)
D) C(s) + O2(g)
CO2(g)
E) 2HI(g)
H2(g) + I2(g)
Q5. Predict the shape of SeCl3-.
A) trigonal planar
B) trigonal pyramidal
C) trigonal bipyramidal
D) seesaw
E) T-shaped
Q6. Which of the following visible lines in the emission spectrum of hydrogen is most energetic?
A) red line at 650 nm
B) Blue-green line at 480 nm
C) violet line at 430 nm
D) violet line at 410 nm
E) all line have the same energy
Q7. A 2.000 g sample of CoCl2·xH2O is dried in an oven. When the anhydrous salt is removed from the oven, its mass is 1.565 g. What is the value of x? (The molar mass od CoCl2 and H2O are 129.83 and 18.02 g/mol, respectively.)
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 6
Q8. The value of the equilibrium constant K is dependent on the
I. initial concentrations of the reactants.
II. initial concentrations of the products.
III. temperature of the system.
IV. nature of the reactants and products.
A) I, II
B) II, III
C) III, IV
D) K is dependent on three of the above choices (I, II, III or IV).
E) K is dependent on only one of the above choices (I, II, III or IV).
Q9. For the Lewis structure that obeys the octet rules, of the diet supplement MSM, (CH3)2SO2, what are the formal charges on sulfur and one oxygen, respectively? Note: S is the central atom.
A) +2 and -1
B) +2 and 0
C) +1 and -2
D) +1 and -1
E) 0 and -2
Q10. Which of the following show increasing atomic radius and ionization energy, respectively?
A) F < S < O and O < S < F
B) S < F < O and S < F < O
C) F < O < S and S < O < F
D) S < O < F and F < O < S
E) None of these
Q11. The spectator ions in the reaction between HF(aq) and KOH(aq) are
A) H+, OH-, F- and K+
B) OH-, F- and K+
C) F- and K+
D) OH- and F-
E) K+ only
Q12. For CO2 and NO2-, resonance forms can be written for
A) Neither
B) CO2 only
C) NO2- only
D) Both
Q13. The electronic configuration of an element X is [Ne]3s23p4. The formula of the most probable compound that X will form with calcium is
A) CaX
B) Ca2X
C) Ca3X2
D) Ca2X3
E) CaX2
Q14. At 700oC, the reaction A2(g) + 3B2(g)
2Cg) has an equilibrium constant (Kc) of 5.37. What happens if 0.40 moles of A2(g), 0.65 moles of B2(g) and 0.80 moles of C(g) are mixed in a 1.0 L vessel at 700oC?
A) Nothing, the system is at equilibrium.
B) More NH3 will be formed.
C) More H2 will be formed than N2.
D) More N2 will be formed than H2.
E) The amount of H2 formed will be a third of the amount of N2 formed.
Q15. How many lone pairs of electrons are there in the Lewis structure of the cyanamide anion, NCNH-?
A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 1
E) 0
Q16. How many orbitals re there in the shell with n = 4?
A) 4
B) 7
C) 9
D) 16
E) 32
Q17. Calculate the volume of 1.00 M barium hydroxide needed to react completely with 0.112 moles nitric acid.
A) 224 mL
B) 168 mL
C) 112 mL
D) 56.0 mL
E) 22.4 mL
Q18. Consider the molecules SF2 and XeF2. Comment on their polarity.
A) Both SF2 and XeF2 are polar.
B) SF2 is polar while XeF2 is nonpolar.
C) XeF2 is polar while SF2 is nonpolar.
D) Both SF2 and XeF2 are nonpolar.
Q19. The total number of atoms in 0.111 mol of Fe(CO)3(PH3)2 is
A) 1.00x1024
B) 6.68x1022
C) 4.46x1021
D) 1.67
E) 2.76x 10-24
Q20. What is the ground-state electron configuration for the cation in NiCl2.6H2O?
A) [Ar] 3d7
B) [Ar] 4s23d6
C) [Ar] 3d8
D) [Ar] 4s13d8
E) [Ar] 4s13d7
PART B: Multiple Choice Questions
1. Following the octet rule, the formal charges on the sulfur and oxygen atoms in the sulfite ion, SO32-, respectively, are
A) +1 and -1
B) +1 and -2
C) +2 and -2
D) +4 and -2
E) +6 and -2 -
Q2. How many oxygen atoms are present in 2.0 moles of copper (II) perchlorate hexahydrate, Cu(Cl04)2·6H2O?
A) 1.2x1024
B) 7.2x1024
C) 9.6x1024
D) 1.2x1025
E) 1.7x1025
Q3. A steel tank contains carbon dioxide at 34oC and is at a pressure of 13.0 atm. Determine the internal gas pressure when the tank and its contents are heated to 100oC.
A) 38.2 atm
B) 15.8 atm
C) 10.7 atm
D) 9.4 atm
E) 1.9 atm
Q4. Suppose that the electron spin quantum number could have three possible values. Which of the following atomic numbers would not correspond to a noble gas?
A) 3
B) 15
C) 27
D) 42
E) 81
Q5. In the direct reaction of Si(s) with Cl2(g) the yield of SiCl4(l) is 55.0%. How many moles of chlorine gas must be reacted with excess silicon in order to obtain 2.00 moles of SiCI4?
A) 0.500 moles
B) 2.20 moles
C) 3.64 moles
D) 4.00 moles
D) 7.27 moles
Q6. Predict the shape of SeF3+.
A) trigonal planar
B) trigonal pyramidal
C) trigonal bipyramidal
D) seesaw
E) T-shaped
Q7. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
I. An excited atom can return to a higher energy level by emitting light energy.
II. An atom can be excited to a higher energy level by absorption of light energy.
III. The frequency and wavelength of light are inversely proportional.
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and III only
D) II and III only
E) All three statements are true
Q8. A 20.0 mL sample of an element with a density of 3.0 g/mL contains 4x1023 atoms. What is the atomic weight of this element?
A) 300
B) 90
C) 60
D) 40
E) 10
Q9. According to the VSEPR theory, the F -P -F bond angles in the PF4- ion are predicted to be
A) < 90o and < 120o
B) < 109.5o
C) 109.5o only
D) 90o and 120o
E) 180o only
Q10. What volume of 0.332 M Fe(NO3)3 solution contains 0.3736 moles of nitrate ions?
A) 1.13x103 mL
B) 413 mL
C) 375 mL
D) 125 mL
E) 6.78 mL
Q11. Which of the following statements is true?
A) The first ionization energy of H is greater than that of He.
B) The ionic radius of Fe+ is larger than that of Fe3+.
C) The electronegativity of P is greater than that of Cl.
D) The atomic radius of Li is larger than that of Cs.
E) All are false.
Q12. The spectator ions in the reaction between HF(aq) and KOH(aq) are
A) H+, OH- ,F and K+
B) OH-, F- and K+
C) F+ and K+
D) OH- and F-
E) K+ only
Q13. If 6.672x10-3 moles of KOH is required to completely neutralize 25.00 mL of an aqueous solution of phosphoric acid, H3PO4, what is the concentration of the phosphoric acid solution?
A) 0.2669 M
B) 0.8007 M
C) 0.08896 M
D) 0.1345 M
E) 0.1778 M
Q14. Which of the follwing atoms has the largest number of unpaired electrons in its ground state?
A) Sn (Z = 50)
B) Rh (Z = 45)
C) Mo (Z = 42)
D) Sr (Z = 38)
Q15. Consider the reaction: 2P(s) + 5Cl2(g) → 2PCl5(s), This diagram shows a mixture of P and Cl2, where "O" represents phosphorus, and each symbol represents 1 mole of the species. How amny moles of excess reactant are left over after the reaction is complete?
A) 8.4 moles
B) 8.0 moles
C) 4.2 moles
D) 3.6 moles
E) 3.0 moles
Q16. For SF6 and N3-, resonance forms can be written for
A) Neither
B) SF6 only
C) N3- only
D) Both
Q17. Acid rain can be produced through the sequence of reactions that follow:
4FeS2(s) + 11O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s) + 8SO2(g)
2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g)
SO3(g) + H2O(l) → H2SO4(l)
How many moles of H2SO4 will be produced from 5.00 moles of FeS2?
A) 1.25 moles
B) 2.50 moles
C) 5.00 moles
D) 10.0 moles
E) 20.0 moles
Q18. What is the ground-state electron configuration for the cation in TiCl2·6H2O?
A) [Ar] 3d24s2
B) [Ar] 3d14s1
C) [Ar] 4s2
D) [Ar] 3d2
E) [Ar] 3d44s2
Q19. If 0.0100 moles hydrochloric acid, HCI, is completely neutralised with 0.250 M Sr(OH)2, how many mL of strontium hydroxide is required?
A) 20.0 mL
B) 25.0 mL
C) 40.0 mL
D) 50.0 mL
E) 80.0 mL
Q20. Consider the molecules I3- and XeF4. Comment on their polarity.
A) Both I3- and XeF4 are polar.
B) I3- is polar while XeF4 is nonpolar.
C) XeF4 is polar while I3- is nonpolar.
D) Both I3- and XeF4 are nonpolar.
PART C: Multiple Choice Questions
Q1) All the following statements are true EXCEPT
A) The fourth major energy level has one set of f orbitals.
B) The n = 2 energy level has d orbitals.
C) The s orbital has a spherical shape.
D) There are five d orbitals in each d subshell.
E) The 2p orbitals can have a maximum of 6 electron.
Q2) What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy a 5f orbital?
A) 7
B) 14
C) 10
D) 6
E) 2
Q3) The bonds in oxygen molecules can be broken by sunlight. The minimum energy required to break the oxygen-oxygen bond is 498 kJ/mol.
What wavelength of sunlight is required to cause an oxygen-oxygen bond to break? What type of electromagnetic radiation causes this breakage?
Note: Enter only the numerical value for the wavelength (in nanometres) and to the correct number of significant figures. Your answer must be expressed in decimal form, e.g., if your final answer were 1.23×104 you would enter 12300.
Q4) All the following electronic ground-state configurations are correct EXCEPT:
A) 50Sn: [Kr]4d105s25p2
B) 54Xe: [Kr]4d105s25p6
C) 29Cu: [Ar]3d104s1
D) 20Ca: [Ar]4s2
E) 25Mn: [Ar]4s24d5
Q5) Of the following relationships, which one is not true:
A) the atomic radius of Si > S
B) the first ionisation energy of Al > Mg
C) the ionic radius of Na+ < F-
D) the first ionisation energy of Ca >Sr
E) the electronegativity of O > N
Q6) The Lewis structure of C22- has
A) no lone pairs of electrons.
B) a double bond between the two carbon atoms.
C) four lone pairs of electrons.
D) a single bond between the two carbon atoms.
E) two lone pairs of electrons.
7) What is the shape of IF4+?
A) see-saw
B) T-shaped
C) bent
D) trigonalbi pyramidal
E) linear
Q8) The hybrid orbitals on the central atom (I) in IF4+ are
A) sp3d2
B) sp3d
C) sp2
D) sp3
E) sp
Q9) The O-O-O bond angle in ozone, O3, is
A) ~90o
B) between 120o and 180o
C) ~120o
D) ~109o
E) ~180o
Q10) Choose the Lewis dot formula that most accurately describes the bonding in CS2.
![2196_figure1.png](https://secure.tutorsglobe.com/CMSImages/2196_figure1.png)
Q11) How many sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds are present in HCCCHO?
A) 3σ and 2π
B) 6σ and 2π
C) 5σ and 3π
D) 7σ and 1π
E) 4σ and 1π
Q12) Which of the following molecules is non-polar?
A) SO2
B) XeF4
C) NF3
D) ClF3
E) SF4
Q13. Urea, CO(NH2)2, manufactured or natural, has long been used as a fertilizer.
What is the percentage by mass of nitrogen in urea?
A) 88%
B) 47%
C) 30%
D) 60%
E) 23%
Q14) How many carbon atoms are there in 4.0×102 mmol of procaine, C13H20N2O2, a "pain killer" used by dentists?
A) 6.3 × 1024
B) 9.6 × 1024
C) 9.6 × 1023
D) 3.1 × 1024
E) 4.8 × 1023
Q15) How many grams of copper are required to produce 29.3 g of copper (I) sulfide?
Note: Enter only your numerical answer, to the correct number of significant figures, in decimal form.
Q16) How many moles of sulfate ions are there in a 200-mL volumetric flask labelled "0.030 M Al2(SO4)3"?
A) 0.024 moles
B) 0.012 moles
C) 0.0060 moles
D) 0.0030 moles
E) 0.018 moles
Q17) Consider the following:
1. Hg(NO3)2(aq) + NH4Br(aq)
2. Hg2(C2H3O2)2(aq) + KBr(aq)
3. Hg(ClO4)2(aq) + NaNO3(aq)
4. Hg2(ClO4)2(aq) + KC2H3O2(aq)
Q17) Which of the above reactions produces the net ionic equation:
Hg22+(aq) + 2Br‾(aq) → Hg2Br2(s)?
A) 1, 2 and 4
B) 1 and 2
C) 1, 2, 3, and 4
D) 1 only
E) 2 only
Q18) Fe2O3(s) is known as iron(III) oxide, ferric oxide or hematite, but is more commonly known as rust. It is dark red in colour, reacts with acids and is the main source of iron for the steel industry.
Consider the following reaction: 4 Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s)
The diagram below shows a mixture of Fe(s) and O2(g) where each symbol represents 2.82 moles of each species.
How many moles of excess reactant remain after the reaction is complete?
Enter your final numerical answer to the correct number of significant figures and in decimal form only.
Q19) Molten iron is produced from iron ore (Fe2O3), within a blast furnace, through the following three-step process:
3 Fe2O3(s) + CO(g) 2 Fe3O4(s) + CO2(g)
Fe3O4(s) + CO(g) 3 FeO(s) + CO2(g)
FeO(s) + CO(g) Fe(l) + CO2(g)
How many kilograms of iron ore are required to produce 4.48 metric tonnes of iron?
Note: Enter your final numerical answer, to the correct number of significant figures, and in decimal form only, e.g., if your final answer is 1.23×104 you would enter 12300.
Q20) In order to isolate aqueous silver, a chemist mixed 125 mL of 0.250 M sodium carbonate with 215 mL of 0.266 M silver nitrate and 6.00 g of silver carbonate was recovered. Calculate the % yield.
Enter your final numerical answer to the correct number of significant figures and in decimal form only.
Q21) Aqueous hydrochloric acid reacts with aluminum metal to form aluminum chloride and hydrogen gas.
If excess hydrochloric acid reacts with 0.0740 moles of aluminum, how many litres of hydrogen gas are produced at 110.0oC and 758 Torr when this reaction is only 75% efficient?
Enter your final numerical answer to the correct number of significant figures and in decimal form only.
Assignment Files -
https://www.dropbox.com/s/7kv1op5yrusbpfk/Assignment%20Files%20-%20Chemestry.rar?dl=0