Problem:
99% of the Potential gametes (oocytes) are eliminated in the female, but not in the male prior to puberty?
required:
Question 1: How, when, and why does this occur?
Question 2: It was long thought that chromosomal aneuploidy or genetic defects/mutations are de-selected, screened, and eliminated during this loss in the female, but not in the male. Discuss the evidence that showed whether this hypothesis was accurate or inaccurate.
Question 3: How might physiological events in the female lead to the same degree of sperm loss for the male with each ejaculate?
Include source of information for best answer.