Problem: Murder's mens rea is an intention to kill or an intention to cause grievous bodily harm. If defendant was completely unaware of what he had done that means he had no intent to commit murder right? Defendant was completely unconscious (eg. intoxication) why should be think he acted with intent to cause harm and his actions resulted in the death of victim? This is something that I still don't understand. Also, the mens rea of unlawful act manslaughter is intention or recklessness. Defendant had no intention of killing victim, but he reckless and dangerous behavior caused victim's death. If so, does this situation fit the unlawful act manslaughter? Hence, can defendant be charged directly with unlawful act manslaughter and does he have a defense that he can rely on?