Problem: A 21-year-old male sex worker with a history of HIV presents to the clinic with a single painless penile lesion. The patient reports multiple sex partners and does not use condoms during intercourse. Physical examination shows an indurated lesion at the tip of the penis as well as inguinal adenopathy. The rapid plasma reagin test comes back positive. What is the route of administration for the most appropriate drug for this man's condition? Need Assignment Help? A. Orally B. Intravenously C. intramuscularly D. Rectally