Problem: Beitz criticizes Rawls for presuming states are self-sufficient and for neglecting the possibility of resource redistribution in the global original position. Beitz sees an analogy between Rawls' claim that the distribution of innate talent is morally 'arbitrary', and his own claim that the distribution of natural resources is also morally arbitrary. Does this analogy hold? Is there an argument that a state rightly benefits from its own natural resources?