Assignment Task:
A 42-year-old man is diagnosed with primary syphilis based on a non-painful genital ulcer and positive syphilis serologic tests. He reports one new male and one female sex partner in the past 90 days. Both partners are contacted and instructed to come to the clinic for evaluation. The female partner reports sexual contact with the 42-year-old man about 3 weeks ago. She has no symptoms and says she had negative testing for bacterial sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and HIV about 6 months ago. She does not have any antibiotic allergies. What would you recommend for the female sex partner regarding her management as a syphilis contact? She does not need further evaluation or treatment at this time since she is asymptomatic Order serologic tests for syphilis and treat only if the syphilis test is positive Order serologic tests for syphilis and treat with a single dose of intramuscular benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units before results return Defer serologic testing for syphilis for 3 weeks and treat only if the syphilis test is positive