Complete the mcq:
Question 1
According to the textbook, part of the difficulty in revising one's writing comes from:
A. not understanding what to revise.
B. the fact that some writing just does not need revision.
C. not having enough background in English grammar.
D. the writer's resistance to changing anything in the draft.
Question 2
The most effective method of revision is:
A. to start at the beginning of the paper and mark everything you can find wrong with the paper as quickly as possible.
B. to read the paper backwards, starting from the back page and reading to the front page.
C. to focus on only one aspect of revision and on only one section of the writing at a time.
D. to put away the draft and write a new draft; then compare them and select the better draft as the revision.
Question 3
__________ typically includes assuring the consistency of all elements of design, from "macro" elements, such as assuring the same font type, style, size, and placement headings, to details, such as assuring that numbers of figures and their textual references match.
A. Proofreading
B. Design review
C. Content accuracy
D. Document cycling
Question 4
Software tools for editing can identify all of the following EXCEPT:
A. inconsistent writing styles.
B. potentially sexist language.
C. passive voice.
D. redundancy.
Question 5
A __________ edit corrects language and numerical errors.
A. policy
B. integrity
C. language
D. screening
Question 6
As discussed in the textbook, four common copyediting problems for writers that need a final check before a document is complete are concrete details, directness, the elimination of several kinds of wordiness, and:
A. inflated language.
B. positive phrasing.
C. abstract language.
D. synonyms.
Question 7
Which of the following is an Partple of direct language?
A. The judge provided the required authorization for the search.
B. Your conceptualization of our aggregate capability may enhance our marketing position.
C. The judge authorized the search.
D. It is my opinion that the exposure of the disk to the light could be at the core of the problem.
Question 8
Most of the time, positive phrasing should be used; sometimes, however, a negative must be used. In such cases, the writer should consider using a less overtly negative term. Which of the following is an Partple of a less overtly negative term?
A. Do not accept
B. Not possible
C. Not many
D. Reject
Question 9
The phrases "collaborate together" and "initial preparation" are Partples of:
A. redundant modifiers.
B. grammar errors.
C. indirect language.
D. positive phrasing.
Question 10
__________ is a straightforward, final check for accuracy and consistency in mechanical, grammatical, design, disciplinary, and typographical conventions.
A. Copyediting
B. Proofreading
C. Editing
D. Feasibility reporting
Question 11
In technical communication, __________ is the degree to which texts effectively and easily enable people to accomplish their goals.
A. satisfaction
B. readability
C. usability
D. effectiveness
Question 12
How quickly readers can find information using an index or table of contents is a characteristic of a text's:
A. efficiency.
B. memorability.
C. learnability.
D. satisfaction.
Question 13
__________ is the extent to which tests measure what they claim to measure.
A. Test measurement
B. Test reliability
C. Test evaluation
D. Test validity
Question 14
When using the Flesch Reading Ease score, the lower the score is, the:
A. the more comprehendable the material is.
B. the easier the material is.
C. more difficult the material is.
D. the more generalized the material is.
Question 15
In text-based testing, __________ assess consistency, correctness, and conventions of visuals.
A. document reviews
B. visual reviews
C. editorial reviews
D. comparison tests
Question 16
Information collected from users as they read and use a text is called:
A. retrospective testing.
B. expert testing.
C. concurrent testing.
D. technical testing.
Question 17
Questionnaires, interviews, and focus groups are used during:
A. retrospective testing.
B. concurrent testing.
C. expert testing.
D. technical testing.
Question 18
When reporting test results, ways to quantify the results include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. how long it took the participants to complete tasks.
B. how many errors occur during various tasks.
C. how often different test participants note the same usability issues.
D. how pleased the test participants were with the test.
Question 19
Consideration for user's vision, hearing, dexterity, cognition, and other learning and perception areas refers to the __________ of the message to various users.
A. readability
B. usability
C. adaptability
D. accessibility
Question 20
Nearly 3 million people in the United States:
A. are affected by dyslexia.
B. have speech impairments and are color blind.
C. have visual impairments.
D. are deaf or hard of hearing.
Part 4
Part 1
Question 1
The strategies for organizing information are widely recognized, but you should apply them purposefully rather than mechanically. This means that you:
A. should always begin by outlining the topic.
B. should have reasons for what you do rather than just following conventional practices.
C. have the freedom to decide whether to use bullets rather than Roman numerals in your outlines.
D. should not organize the information because the reader will organize it to suit himself or herself.
Question 2
In asking yourself questions about your outlines, to which of the topics does the question "Is all of the information included and all of the unnecessary information omitted?" relate?
A. Content and context
B. Audience
C. Purpose and key points
D. Organization
Question 3
All of the following statements about storyboards are true EXCEPT:
A. Storyboards are short, dramatic visual summaries showing the gist of the final project.
B. Storyboards can be either hand-drawn or electronic sketches.
C. Storyboards convey settings, characters, and actions for a specific audience.
D. Storyboards were recently invented as a means to organize technical information.
Question 4
Which of the following is useful advice about creating storyboards?
A. Storyboards should be created only after all of the final decisions about the project have been made so that they will not have to be revised.
B. Don't invest too much time and effort in storyboards; keep them sketchy.
C. Storyboards are costly to make and modify, so use them sparingly in your projects.
D. Storyboards are tools of the past and are being replaced by more technologically advanced planning tools.
Question 5
In addition to outlines and storyboards, your textbook suggests __________ as a third way to experiment with and test ways to organize information.
A. graphics
B. free-form narratives
C. tables and spreadsheets
D. dramatic interpretations
Question 6
In releasing revisions of information, numbering the releases on a continuum --1.1 through 2.1 -- signifies that version 2. was:
A. a major revision of the information.
B. a completely different set of information from the series numbered 1., 1.1, etc.
C. was simply released before 2.1
D. was released in a different fiscal year than those numbered 1.1, etc.
Question 7
If a Web site is well organized, then:
A. the information will be listed in chronological order.
B. the information will be listed in alphabetical order.
C. the information in the written paragraphs will always have clear topic sentences.
D. users will be able to find what they want.
Question 8
An Partple of a visual form for spatial order in a technical document is:
A. a cutaway view.
B. a genealogy chart.
C. a line graph.
D. a calendar.
Question 9
Because readers want to know the most important points first, __________ order is used frequently in the workplace writing.
A. chronological
B. ascending
C. descending
D. historical
Question 10
The kind of reasoning that moves from specific instances to broad generalizations is:
A. faulty reasoning.
B. inductive reasoning.
C. deductive reasoning.
D. correct reasoning.
Question 11
__________ is/are concerned with the ways in which you organize and present information to increase audience comprehension.
A. Textual elements
B. Document design
C. Graphic elements
D. Information design
Question 12
__________ is another term for "white space" and is any part of the page or screen that is blank, without print or visuals.
A. Lead space
B. Negative space
C. Thumbnail
D. Empty space
Question 13
Which of the following is NOT true concerning the use of chunking in margins?
A. Margins that run nearly to the edges of the page save space and cause the reader to feel that the information is extremely critical.
B. Default margins are usually set at 1 inch.
C. Slightly wider margins increase aesthetic appeal and ease of reading.
D. An extra-wide margin can be left blank, or it can be a place for annotations or references.
Question 14
A long-cited survey in the journal Technical Communication indicates that a majority of both managers and nonmanagers prefer documents with __________ margins.
A. fully justified
B. right-justified
C. ragged-right
D. no
Question 15
__________ grids are typically used for newsletters.
A. One-column
B. Two-column
C. Three-column
D. None of the above; there are no conventions concerning the number of grids.
Question 16
Miscellaneous graphics that clutter the page but do not help people to understand information are called:
A. unruly graphics.
B. thumbnails.
C. tombstones.
D. chartjunk.
Question 17
Which of the following techniques can help to eliminate widows and orphans in documents?
A. Leave at least three lines on a page before going to the next paragraph.
B. Revise sentences in the paragraph to add or delete a few words.
C. Emphasize selected portions of the text to make the information more accessible.
D. Label the chunked sections of the text appropriately.
Question 18
The typeface often used for standard business letters is:
A. Helvetica.
B. Adobe Garamond.
C. Edwardian Script.
D. Palatino
Question 19
Fonts on Windows-based browsers look __________ than the equivalent fonts on Macintosh browsers.
A. one to two points smaller
B. two to three points smaller
C. one to two points larger
D. two to three points larger
Question 20
When using lists of information:
A. number lists of information that are equivalent in importance.
B. use bullets for lists in which a priority of items is important.
C. use bullets for lists of information that are equivalent in importance.
D. Use bullets for information in which a total count of the items is important.
Part 5
Question 1
Which of the following statements is true about referring to visuals in the text of a document?
A. In general, you should refer to visuals in the text of the document.
B. In general, the audience will check the visual whether you refer to it in the text or not.
C. Textual references should never be placed in parenthetical references.
D. If you embed a textual reference in a sentence, the reader will not pay attention to it.
Question 2
Which of the following statements about the placement of visuals is true?
A. Visuals that readers need to refer to repeatedly should be placed at the front of the document.
B. Always place visuals on the right side of the page; people tend not to look at visuals placed on the left side of a page.
C. If a visual requires an entire page in a document printed only on one side of the paper, place the visual on the page following the text reference.
D. If a formal report has more than two visuals, include a list of figures or a list of tables at the beginning of the document.
Question 3
Symbols used by most countries in which there is a yellow triangle with a black band and a black graphic on it:
A. are used to give directions to travelers.
B. prohibit whatever is written on the sign.
C. signal a safety precaution, such as "ear protection necessary."
D. warn about whatever is displayed in the triangle.
Question 4
Which of the following statements is true about scatter graphs?
A. Because scatter graphs are relatively easy to interpret, their statistical relevance does not have to be discussed in the text.
B. If the dots are randomly scattered, they have a high degree of correlation.
C. If the diagonal runs from the upper left to the lower right, the correlation is positive.
D. Because interpreting scatter graphs is often difficult, their use is generally limited to professional and expert audiences.
Question 5
The type of graph which is used to emphasize the proportionate distribution of something is a:
A. bar graph.
B. pie graph.
C. scatter graph.
D. subdivided bar graph.
Question 6
In identifying and distinguishing between insects, __________ is the most helpful aspect of a visual.
A. color
B. font size
C. chart design
D. organization
Question 7
A(n) __________ portrays the hierarchy of a corporation by putting each position in a separate block.
A. organizational chart
B. flowchart
C. block chart
D. free-form chart
Question 8
As visuals, photographs often provide too much detail; therefore, _______ is/are often placed on the photograph to draw attention to the main features.
A. dots
B. text
C. callout arrows
D. grid lines
Question 9
Color can be misused when there are too many colors, too much color, inappropriate colors, or when:
A. colors are used as symbols, such as when neon orange is used to signify warnings.
B. the intensity differs according to purpose.
C. colors attract attention to a topic.
D. color is used simply as decoration, contradicting the basic premise that color in technical documents should be functional.
Question 10
According to the OSHA and APWA Safety Colors chart, which of the following is a correct match?
A. Red = WARNING
B. Yellow = CAUTION
C. Blue = SAFETY
D. Green = NOTICE
Question 11
The seven important uses of color are: signaling safety, attracting attention, enabling accurate identification, showing structure and organization, highlighting components and their function or movement, aiding comprehension, and:
A. decorating documents.
B. guiding reading.
C. influencing interpretation.
D. organizing information.
Question 12
Which of the following is the most common way to collect information about visitors to Web sites?
A. Hit counters
B. Adware
C. Spyware
D. Cookies
Question 13
The protocol that allows computers to locate and communicate with each other is called:
A. TCP/IP.
B. ISP.
C. PPP.
D. URL.
Question 14
Of the factors that have been identified as particularly important to online reading, which relates to how easily readers can move through and locate places on the Web?
A. Responsiveness
B. Navigation
C. Legibility
D. Equipment and service
Question 15
When Web site designers consider the framework that structures the information in such a way that that it meets the goals and expectations of the user, they are considering:
A. online video presentations.
B. content.
C. page/screen design.
D. information architecture.
Question 16
Which link's primary function is to authenticate the site and its content by describing the organization's legal status, its formal policies, contact information, and so on?
A. Authorizing
B. Commenting
C. Referencing/Citing
D. Exemplifying
Question 17
Which of the following ways to navigate Web sites are sequential lists of pages that let users know where they are on the site and where they have been in relation to either the site's home page or their entry point onto the site?
A. Menus
B. Embedded links
C. Breadcrumb trails
D. Dialogue boxes
Question 18
Web site designers should work to prevent (or keep from having):
A. vertical scrolling.
B. horizontal scrolling.
C. white space.
D. more content than navigation on a page
Question 19
As discussed in the textbook, which of the following is not supported by older browsers?
A. PNG images
B. JPG images
C. GIF images
D. According to the textbook, all of the above image types are completely supported by all browsers.
Question 20
When writing for electronic communication:
A. use a pyramid structure for organizing information (details first, followed by the main point in summation).
B. provide extensive in-text links to other sites.
C. use at least 15-25 words in each information chunk.
D. use headings and bulleted lists.
Part 6
Question 1
Questions such as "Who uses it? and "What is its value? relate to which component of a definition?
A. Physical characteristics
B. Function
C. Operation
D. Comparison
Question 2
In constructing formal definitions, you should:
A. make the genus as broad as possible.
B. make the genus as narrow as possible.
C. make the differentia as exclusive as possible.
D. avoid all classifications.
Question 3
Which of the following would NOT be used in creating an informal definition?
A. A synonym
B. An antonym
C. A classification
D. An analogy
Question 4
A(n) __________ definition summarizes or outlines the primary steps involved in the function, usually in chronological order.
A. classification
B. informal
C. expanded
D. operational
Question 5
Expanded definitions commonly include history, Partples, and:
A. etymology.
B. synonyms.
C. stipulations.
D. drawings and illustrations.
Question 6
A(n) __________ is a mini-dictionary usually located either at the beginning or end of a technical document.
A. sidebar
B. glossary
C. appendix
D. online help link
Question 7
When documents are lengthy and audience's backgrounds are widely varied, __________ can be created and placed at the end of the document to provide operational and expanded definitions of critical concepts; they can be used by those who need additional information and ignored by readers who do not need the explanations.
A. appendices
B. sidebars
C. footnotes
D. information notes
Question 8
Which of the following statements is NOT true about technical descriptions?
A. Technical descriptions provide accurate information about physical features, but they rarely have any further impact.
B. Sometimes technical descriptions constitute an entire document.
C. Most of the time, technical descriptions are limited to a single segment of a longer document or presentation.
D. Technical descriptions provide verifiable information that corresponds to assumed questions, such as What is it? What does it look like?
Question 9
Common applications for technical descriptions include observation notes, training materials, and:
A. editorial viewpoints.
B. proposals and reports.
C. newspaper articles.
D. e-mail communications.
Question 10
Some characteristics that help to make technical descriptions accessible in technical manuals are run-in headings, serif font, and:
A. accurate vocabulary.
B. lengthy explanations.
C. embedded figures.
D. short paragraphs.
Question 11
Components which comprise the physical aspects of a device, without regard to purpose are:
A. graphical components.
B. functional parts.
C. structural parts.
D. dimensions.
Question 12
If the purpose of a specific visual is to describe individual parts in relation to the whole or to give an image of each individual component, then the selected visual should be:
A. photographs, realistic drawings, or contour maps.
B. phantom views, schematics, or cross-section maps.
C. exploded views, cutaways, blueprints, or drawings of individual parts.
D. photographs, videos, or realistic drawings.
Question 13
Which of the following is appropriate for the conclusion of a technical description?
A. What is its history?
B. What separates it from similar objects?
C. What are the benefits or problems?
D. Where does the object fit in relation to similar ones?
Question 14
__________ explain sequential actions to members of an audience who need enough details to understand an action or process, but not enough to necessarily enable them to complete it.
A. Process explanations
B. Technical descriptions
C. Instructions
D. Benefits or advantages
Question 15
Faced with negative consequences such as difficulty getting hired at other companies within the same field, what would most likely be a valid reason for why a technical communicator would choose to be a whistleblower when directed, for Partple, to document in writing the safety of a hazardous product or process?
A. Attention-seeking behavior
B. Legal requirements and a sense of responsibility to the community.
C. Promotion or pay raise
D. Lack of loyalty to employer
Question 16
An effective way to present a process explanation that precedes step-by-step instructions is:
A. to insert a photograph of the final product.
B. to make a chart of the benefits of the product.
C. to construct a graph of production outcomes for the last month.
D. to create a flowchart.
Question 17
In preparing a process explanation, the step of __________ forms the basis (backbone) of the process explanation and aids in designing visuals.
A. listing the sequence of steps in the process
B. identifying the audience
C. organizing the material
D. choosing the diction
Question 18
An overview of an entire sequence can be provided by timelines as well as by:
A. pie charts.
B. bar graphs.
C. schedules.
D. scatter graphs.
Question 19
When writing process explanations, use active voice when:
A. the action involves a person and you want to emphasize the recipient of the action.
B. when the person doing the the action is insignificant or unimportant.
C. when the action does not involve a person and you want to emphasize the recipient of the action.
D. the action involves a person and you want to emphasize the operator or the doer of the action.
Question 20
Because process explanations are chronological, writers often use __________ to signal movement from one part of the process to the next.
A. thesis statements
B. headings and subheadings
C. commas
D. bullets
Part 7
Question 1
Which of the following is the best Partple of a formal presentation situation?
A. Presentation of your findings at weekly departmental meetings
B. A short presentation to a group of people who will use the information you present as a springboard for a group discussion
C. A meeting with your immediate supervisor
D. A presentation to corporate executives or international customers
Question 2
Audience members who include people in decision-making positions who may have limited technical experience, such as corporate officers, governmental officials, and military leaders, are best described as:
A. professional peers.
B. nonexpert professionals.
C. international audiences.
D. general audiences.
Question 3
When you show your audience how something is done, define and describe a process as it happens, and educate the audience, you are providing:
A. an informal presentation.
B. a persuasive presentation.
C. a demonstration.
D. a training session.
Question 4
When you avoid cramming too much information into the allotted time, intersperse difficult material with easier material, and use a variety of activities, you are using the strategy of:
A. making what you say easy to listen to and remember.
B. varying the pacing and structure of your presentation.
C. encouraging active involvement.
D. creating an audience-centered atmosphere.
Question 5
Making the statement "So far I have explained three common methods to eliminate exposed asbestos in your facility" is an Partple of __________ the presentation.
A. including summaries in
B. using transitions in
C. previewing the organization of
D. drawing conclusions from facts presented in
Question 6
When using flip charts or posters in a presentation, the people in the last row should be able to easily read the information on the visual; allow __________ of letter height for every ten feet of audience.
A. 1/2 inch
B. 1 1/2 inches
C. 1 inch
D. 2 inches
Question 7
Which of the following statements is true about handouts?
A. Handouts should provide only the key points of your presentation; otherwise, your audience will read the handouts instead of listening to you.
B. You should always give the handout at the very beginning of the
presentation.
C. Handouts should be presented as loose pages so that the participants can bind them in their preferred manner.
D. In a long set of handouts, it is easier for the audience to "turn to the page following the blue page divider" than to "turn to page 9 in your handout."
Question 8
Correspondence is different from other genres of technical communication; Partples of correspondence include:
A. reports.
B. e-mail and memos.
C. training manuals.
D. technical instructions.
Question 9
Which of the following is NOT true concerning electronic messages?
A. Do not respond immediately to a message that upsets you.
B. Keep the message brief and on topic.
C. You do not need to refer to the content of the original message by quoting or summarizing the subject.
D. Cover only one topic in each message to make replying, forwarding, or organizing archived messages easier.
Question 10
Which of the following is true concerning e-mail?
A. A survey by the American Management Association found that 95% of employees work for companies that have e-mail policies and all of those employees are familiar with their company's policies.
B. According to a court decision in a case involving Nissan (as discussed in your textbook), companies do not own everything that is sent on the networks they own; employees who send private e-mails on the company network retain ownership of all of the e-mails they write.
C. In professional correspondence it is appropriate to use emoticons and abbreviated spellings, such as "c u" for "see you" as these make people feel more comfortable with your message.
D. Never write anything in an e-mail that you would not be willing to say to your boss or in a court of law.
Question 11
When writing e-mail, memos, and letters, organize material __________ if you anticipate a neutral or positive response.
A. in direct (descending) order
B. in indirect (ascending) order
C. using bullets
D. by first asking questions which are then followed by explanatory material
Question 12
Which of the following is an Partple of using the "you" attitude as discussed in the textbook?
A. Your order will be shipped on March 17, one week later than originally anticipated.
B. I appreciate your hard work on this project.
C. We need your crew to follow the new procedures.
D. Our department is backlogged, so we will have to delay shipment of your order.
Question 13
Which of the following is the only component listed below that is different in a response that rejects an inquiry than in one that accepts an inquiry?
A. Acknowledge the inquiry.
B. Offer an alternative.
C. Build goodwill.
D. Conclude in a friendly manner.
Question 14
Your textbook reviews the domino effect of correspondence by presenting the Tele-Robics case. Which of the following types of correspondence was NOT included in this chain of events?
A. Complaint letter to field service office
B. Several e-mails and memos
C. Letters to vendor and other customers
D. All of the correspondence in a-c above was used in the case.
Question 15
Which of the following is NOT a stated purpose of a proposal?
A. Solve a problem
B. Investigate a subject
C. Advocate a particular political viewpoint
D. Sell a product or service
Question 16
Theorists in psychology and communication believe that people reject or at least devalue information that conflicts with their existing beliefs; this principle is called:
A. internal conflict.
B. comprehension failure.
C. objective disagreement.
D. cognitive dissonance.
Question 17
A(n) __________ is a syllogism in which the major premise is unacknowledged; thus it can address probabilities rather an verifiable information and can employ ethical and emotional arguments as well as logical arguments.
A. logical conclusion
B. false syllogism
C. enthymeme
D. rebuttal
Question 18
The ten most common reasons that proposals are turned down include lack of new or original ideas, absence of acceptable scientific rationale, and:
A. poor grammar and other written conventions.
B. uncertainty concerning the future direction.
C. scope of the work is too narrow.
D. plan is too specifically focused.
Question 19
Which of the following parts of the proposal explains the methodology that will be used to implement the plan?
A. Approach
B. Benefits
C. Evaluation
D. Plan
Question 20
Proposals are usually intended for management personnel or external readers and may range from __________ pages in length.
A. 2-3
B. 5-15
C. a few to several hundred
D. 1-5