Question 1. Diamond and graphite are the two primary allotropes of carbon. Neither is generally considered hazardous, but they have their own specific uses. Choose which of the following statements is TRUE regarding these allotropes.
Diamond and graphite undergo phase changes from solid to liquid at moderately high temperature.
Diamond and graphite do not burn.
Diamond and graphite have different chemical structures.
Diamond and graphite are poor conductors of heat.
Question 2. Hydrogen can also be produced from the reaction of certain metals with water and acids. Which of the following metals has the LOWEST activity series based on the arrangement included in Table 7.5?
Nickel
Sodium
Aluminum
Lead
Question 3. A contractor was hired to do some maintenance work inside a grain silo. Assuming the facility is at sea level, what is the minimum level of oxygen necessary for the contractor to carry out his or her task without using a supplied air respirator?
16.0%
19.5%
20.9%
23.5%
Question 4. A soil vapor extraction system equipped with carbon canisters is used to remediate gasoline contamination at a gas station. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
Activated carbon in the canisters filters the gasoline vapors by the process of absorption.
Activated carbon is charcoal heated in the absence of air at low temperatures.
Activated carbon is an effective filter medium for gasoline vapors because of its small surface area.
Activated carbon in the canisters filters gasoline vapors by the process of adsorption.
Question 5. Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is FALSE?
There are three allotropes of oxygen: GOX, LOX, and ozone.
LOX is cryogenic oxygen.
Gaseous oxygen under increased pressure is called hyperbaric oxygen.
Industrial facilities that use large quantities of oxygen often store it as the cryogenic liquid.
Question 6. Although coal is no longer the favored energy source, U.S. coal mines still produced close to a billion short tons of coal. Match the description of the following chemical products obtained from or related to coal.
Coke
Carbon black
Coal gas
Coal tar pitch
Coal tar
Creosote oil
Coal tar distillate
Anthracite
Lignite
Charcoal
A. Any fraction obtained by distilling coal tar
B. Liquid produced from the heating of coal that can be used for waterproofing when sealing roofs
C. Coal that has a specific gravity of 1.29
D. Residue remaining after wood, nut shells or peach pits are heated in the absence of air
E. Solid residue that is left when coal and coal tar pitch are heated in the absence of air
F. Coal that has 0.4 to 1.9% sulfur content
G. Residue left after coal is heated to 350 deg C in the absence of air
H. Product obtained from the distillation of coal tar
I. A finely divided form of carbon that is produced when coal tar burns in a furnace with limited air
J. Mixture consisting of ammonia, carbon monoxide, hydrogen cyanide, methane, and hydrogen sulfide produced when coal is heated in the absence of air
Question 7. A chlorine manufacturing company offers a rail carrier 2700 lb (1227 kg) of liquefied compressed chlorine for transportation contained in a ton-container.
Question 8 Liquid oxygen (LOX) is used in the aerospace industry, steel industry, electric power plants, and hospitals.
A hospital is installing their own bulk oxygen system due to their large volume of consumption. OSHA regulation 29 CFR 1910.104(b)(2)(iii) requires owners of bulk oxygen systems to provide noncombustible surfacing in areas where liquid oxygen might leak during operation of the system or during the filling of a storage container. If the hospital provides an asphalt surface in areas where oxygen could potentially leak, will they be in compliance? Explain your answer.
In a another scenario, what actions should an emergency-response crew take to protect lives, property, and the environment at a collision scene involving separate spills of liquid oxygen and automobile fuel?
Question 9. You are the environmental health and safety (EHS) professional of a microelectronics company who just got informed that approximately 2.8 liters (2,800 ml) of aqua regia was spilled at the company's on-site laboratory. The EHS professional, after checking into this spill found that the exact chemicals involved are:
700 ml of HCl and 2.1 liters of HNO3.
700 ml of HNO3 and 2.1 liters of HCl.
933 ml of HNO3 and 1.87 liters of HCl.
933 ml of HCl and 1.87 liters of HNO3.
Question 10. A common product of hydrolysis when some substances react with water is hydrogen chloride. Which of the following water reactive substances does NOT produce hydrogen chloride?
Acetyl chloride
Chlorine dioxide (hydrate)
Chromium oxychloride
Lithium hypochlorite
Question 11. Which of the following acids is present in soft drinks?
Hydrofluoric acid
Glacial acetic acid
Phosphoric acid
Oxalic acid
Question 12. Di-lithium is composed of two lithium atoms. Which of the following statements regarding di-lithium or lithium is FALSE?
They oxidize very slowly in air.
They remain in the solid state even after getting fragmented.
Their temperature exceeds the boiling point of water during their reaction to water.
The hydrogen dissipates into the surrounding environment when reacting to water.
Question 13. A fruit processing company has a permit to discharge their process wastewater to irrigate an adjacent farmland. Their permit limits the pH of the discharge to 7.0. If the wastewater is 1000 times more acidic than the limit, what is the current pH of the water?
5.0
3.0
4.0
2.0
Question 14. __________ is a colorless liquid that is mainly used as a chlorinating and dehydrating agent. When it reacts with water, a gaseous hydrochloric acid and aqueous sulfuric acid are produced.
Question 15. A paramedic responded to an apartment emergency call where a young boy inadvertently swallowed a corrosive (low pH) material. As an initial action, the paramedic could neutralize the kid's stomach with Philips' Milk of Magnesia, a form of magnesium __________.
Question 16 Vinegar is good with salad dressings and may even be better as an alternative cleaning chemical in households. Food-grade vinegar is an aqueous solution that contains __________% of __________ acid.
Question 17. __________ is a form of impure hydrochloric acid that can be used at swimming pools.
Question 18. When metallic potassium reacts with water, the __________ produced initially concentrates around the metal where it self-ignites.
Question 19. A garage that specializes in foreign cars had a small magnesium fire when a car part was ignited. The mechanic knew from his training that he should not use water but could use a dry powder like a sodium chloride based fire extinguishing powder (MET-L-X) or a graphite based (LITH-X). He knows that the CO2 extinguishing powder is not a good choice.
Explain the reasons why the mechanic thinks using CO2 is not a good idea.
If MET-L-X or LITH-X is used, a residue could be left on the metal and if cleaned with water, the fire may be rekindled. Explain the chemical process involved in this phenomenon for both types of fire extinguishing powder.
Question 20. A truck transporting concentrated acetic acid was involved in a non-injury accident resulting in the release of 300 gallons of acid. Part of the mitigation is to neutralize the spilled acid with a solid material such as air-slaked lime. Air-slaked lime is a commercially available product that consists of calcium hydroxide and calcium carbonate. Quicklime is the common name for calcium hydroxide. When quicklime is exposed to moist air, it absorbs atmospheric CO2 and forms calcium carbonate.
Show the chemical formula of air-slaked lime. Explain the chemical interaction involved with the use of air-slaked lime to neutralize the acid. Is this an effective neutralization method for this release?
Explain why OSHA requires employers to limit employee exposure to acetic acid vapors.
Question 21. Below is a list of chemicals with their oral LD50 in mg/kg (rats). Select the substance that is MOST toxic to rats.
DDT, 87 mg/kg
malathion, 885 mg/kg
carbaryl (sevin), 307 mg/kg
parathion, 3 mg/kg
Question 22. Using a pulse CO-oximeter, a paramedic establishes that the blood of an on-duty fire fighter contains carboxyhemoglobin at a concentration of 55,000 ppm by volume. What would be the symptoms?
No symptoms
Fainting, increased respiration and pulse, coma with intermittent convulsions
Possible death
Respiratory failure and death
Question 23. Aflatoxins are natural chemicals found in certain forms of mold that can grow on rice, grains, nuts and seeds, legumes, and spices like black pepper. Continued exposure to aflatoxins has been linked to liver damage in some individuals. What do you call a substance that can cause liver damage?
Nephrotoxicant
Irritant
Hemotoxicant
Hepatotoxicant
Question 24. Atrazine is one of the most widely used agricultural pesticides in the U.S. that may be applied before and after planting to control broadleaf and grassy weeds. It is used primarily on corn, sorghum, sugarcane, Christmas trees, and other crops. If the oral LD50 of Atrazine is 2,000 mg/kg, what is the oral lethal dose in ounces of this pesticide for a 190-lb pesticide applicator?
12
8
6
4
Question 25. Common forms of biological warfare agents are infectious pathogens and toxins. Which pathogen or toxin is characterized by shortness of breath, chest tightness, fever, cough, and low blood pressure within eight hours of its initial assimilation in the body or death within 36 to 72 hours?
Burkholderia mallei
Poxvirus variola
Ricin
Anthrax
Question 26. An oxidation number describes the combining capability of one ion to another ion or of one atom to another atom. Which of the following statements regarding oxidation numbers is FALSE?
H2S contains sulfur which has an oxidation number of -2.
Each oxygen in KMnO4 has an oxidation number of -2, and the oxidation number of K is +1; therefore, the oxidation number on Mn in this compound is +7.
The oxidation number of a monoatomic ion is the same as its ionic charge, such that Na ion has an oxidation number of +1.
The oxidation number of each atom in an element is zero, such that the oxidation number of Cl2 is -2.
Question 27. When bleach and ammonia are mixed, one of the chemical reactions is
2NaOCl + 2NH3 → 2NaONH3 + Cl2. Which reactant undergoes reduction?
NaOCl
NH3
Cl2
NaO
Question 28. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding hydrogen peroxide?
Hydrogen peroxide is the primary constituent of OxiClean.
Hydrogen peroxide is corrosive.
Hydrogen peroxide can be used to destroy E.coli or salmonella.
Hydrogen peroxide employee exposure limit is 1 ppm.
Question 29. An old cooling tower is being demolished at a gas processing plant. Which of the following statements would be FALSE?
Cr+6 can be found in the cooling tower debris.
Workers could be exposed to Cr+6 during demolition if not wearing the appropriate PPE.
Cr+6 will unlikely be found in subsurface soil.
Exposure to Cr+6 can be by inhalation or ingestion.
Question 30. ABC Company was celebrating their working 1 million hours without a lost time incident by sponsoring a camping trip for their employees and their families. To light the campfire, one of the workers tried to use a match. When he rubbed the match head against the box, it did not ignite. Why?
The worker used a strike-anywhere match instead of a safety match.
The box did not contain red phosphorus and powdered glass.
The match did not contain antimony trisulfide, sulfur, and potassium chlorate.
The match contained tetraphosphorustrisulfide, sulfur, lead oxide, and powdered glass.
Question 31. The oxidation number of phosphorus in the P4O6 chemical formula is __________.
Question 32. The oxidation number of chlorine in KClO4 is __________.
Question 33. Following Hurricane Katrina in 2005, what oxidizer did cleanup crews use to eradicate the mold that grew in homes __________?
Question 34. The components of ordinary gunpowder are elemental sulfur, charcoal, and potassium nitrate. When gunpowder explodes, these components react as follows:
3S8(s) + 16C(s) + 32KNO3(s)
Sulfur Carbon Potassium nitrate
16K2O(s) + 16CO2(g) + 16N2(g) + 24SO2(g)
Potassium oxide Carbon dioxide Nitrogen Sulfur dioxide
For this redox reaction, the reducing agents are __________ and __________.
Question 35. A dilute solution of __________ is effective in treating athlete's foot because of its oxidizing capabilities.
Question 36. Metallic peroxides and metallic hypochlorites, when used as bleaching agents, are distinguished by calling the latter chlorine bleach.
For hypochlorite bleaching agents, why do manufacturers sometimes identify their available chlorine on product labels? Explain what available chlorine means?
Discuss some hazards associated with metallic hypochlorites.
Question 37. A worker at DMG Energy, LLC experienced chest pain and was transported to the cardiac unit at a local hospital for treatment. During the doctor's evaluation, the worker disclosed that he was on an ultra-low sodium diet. Explain why nutritionists often advise individuals on low-sodium diets to avoid cured fish and meat products. Contrast some properties between metallic nitrites and metallic nitrates.
Question 38. Which of the following statements is TRUE when shipping organic peroxides or organic hydroperoxides?
DOT classifies organic hydroperoxides and organic peroxides together in a single hazard class.
Organic hydroperoxides and organic peroxides are members of DOT's hazard class 5.1.
DOT refers to organic hydroperoxides and organic peroxides as hydroperoxides.
DOT may allow transportation of certain Type A organic peroxides.
Question 39. Unsaturated hydrocarbons are generally more reactive (less stable) than saturated hydrocarbons. Which of the following organic compounds is the LEAST reactive?
Cyclohexane
CH2=CH-CH=CH2
CH3-C ≡ C-CH3
2-methylpropene
Question 40. What highly volatile liquid can cause grave danger to EHS and FS professionals at incident scenes because its vapor is 2.6 times heavier than air, has an extremely low autoignition temperature of 212 degrees Fahrenheit, and has a flammable range extending from 1% to 44% by volume?
Carbon disulfide
Trimethylamine
Ethyl acetate
Methyl ethyl ketone
Question 41. An employee at a pathology lab was experiencing nasal and eye irritation, eczema, change in pulmonary function, and throat irritation; what concentration of formaldehyde in the air was the employee exposed to?
0.1 to 0.5 ppm
0.6 to 1.9 ppm
2.0 to 5.9 ppm
6.0 to 10.9 ppm
Question 42. Some chemical warfare agents are organic compounds that can inflict harm or cause mass casualties. Which of the following is a fluorinated agent?
Sarin
Tabun
Mustard gas
Diphosgene
Question 43. The multiple components of crude oil are separated by a process called fractionation (fractional distillation) at petroleum refineries.
Rank (or arrange) the following petroleum products according to their increasing risk of fire and explosion at room temperature, and provide the technical basis for the ranking: asphalt, aviation gasoline, transmission fluids, propane, and kerosene.
Why do most experts recommend the use of aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF) to extinguish crude oil fires inside a bulk storage tank?
Question 44. Ethanol Fires can be difficult to extinguish. Discuss why this is true and what approach firefighters might use to fight this type of fire.
Question 45. When nitric acid is added to cellulose, a chemical reaction occurs, during which the cellulose is converted into:
nitrocellulose.
paper.
polyester.
acrylics.
Question 46. The polymer that remains when the natural binding agent is removed from wood and other plants is called:
polystyrene.
wool.
cellulose.
sericin.
Question 47. Which of the following statements about polymer decomposition and combustion is INCORRECT?
The surfaces of some polymeric products tend to char as they burn.
Burning polymeric products are only capable of releasing minimal heat.
Burning polymeric products can evolve voluminous amounts of smoke, carbon monoxide, other hazardous gases, vapor, and fumes.
Polymers frequently undergo thermal degradation into simpler chemical substances.
Question 48. What polymeric material is mainly used by the police and military as the body armor in vests and helmets?
Nomex
Kevlar
Natural rubber
GORE-TEX
Question 49. Which of the following statements is INCORRECTregarding the smoke produced during polymeric fires?
The smoke produced during the burning of polymers made from aliphatic monomers is greater than the amount produced during the burning of polymers made from aromatic monomers
The smoke produced during the burning of polymers made from aromatic monomers is greater than the amount produced during the burning of polymers made from aliphatic monomers
Based on the smoke produced, aromatic monomer fires pose greater health risk than aliphatic fires.
The nature of the smoke produced during polymeric fires varies with the characteristics of the polymeric material.
Question 50. A known human carcinogen that is used in the production of polychloroprene is called __________.
Question 51. At a polymeric fire scene, the gases formed depend on the chemical nature of the polymers that have burned or undergone thermal decomposition. Natural polymers having an animal origin contain proteins which in turn are composed of amino acids. Of concern are two amino acids (methionnc and cysteine) as they produce the toxic gases 1) __________ upon decomposition and 2) __________ upon combustion.
Question 52. The phenomenon associated with the spread of fire from a burning area to other areas physically isolated from the initial fire source is known as __________.
Question 53. A substance that is added to a polymerization tank to prevent or reduce the speed of autopolymerization is called 1) __________. One specific chemical that is used for this purpose is 2) __________.
Question 54. A rise in temperature or pressure of a monomer, increasing the risk of the container vessel rupturing is __________
Question 55. Which of the following statements isINCORRECT regarding cyclonite?
Cyclonite is sometimes encountered as Composition C-4, in which it is mixed with a gummy binder and hand-molded into a puttylike shape for use as a plastic explosive.
Cyclonite can be desensitized by mixing it with beeswax.
Cyclonite is prepared from hexamethylenetetramine, sulfuric acid, ammonium nitrate, and acetic anhydride.
Cyclonite is a possible human carcinogen.
Question 56. Mercury fulminate is synonymous with:
a commercial name for the explosive whose chemical name is cyclotrimethylene-trinitramine, or hexahydro-1,3,5-trinitro-1,3,5-triazine.
a commercial explosive whose proper chemical name is N-methyl-N-2,4,6-tetranitroaniline.
a secondary high explosive whose proper chemical name is cyclotetramethylenetetra-nitramine.
the primary explosive mercury(II) cyanate, a substance whose chemical formula is Hg(CNO)2.
Question 57. When emergency responders suspect that a package may contain an explosive, which of these actions should they NOT do?
Try to identify the material first and call for backup.
Use robotic means to transfer the material into a total-containment device.
Take the material to an isolated location where it can be further examined or destroyed.
Let only specially-trained personnel handle the material.
Question 58. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding a radiological dirty bomb?
The detonation of a radiological dirty bomb will not increase the background radiation to which the entire human population is exposed for a substantial time.
The detonation of a radiological dirty bomb could not produce the immediate mass casualties that are associated with the detonation of nuclear weapons.
The radiological dirty bomb can be detonated with the use of a timer or a cell phone.
The radiological dirty bomb may be charged with a biological or chemical warfare agent.
Question 59. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding regulatory agencies that have some responsibilities in minimizing risks associated with radioactive materials in the United States?
OSHA establishes radiation exposure limits to protect public health.
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency establishes radiation exposure levels to protect public health.
The U.S. Department of Energy oversees the construction and operation of nuclear waste disposal sites.
The U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission regulates the private nuclear energy industry.
Question 60. List two acute radiation effects caused by single-dose exposure to 3.0 Gy of radiation: 1) __________ and 2) __________.
Question 61. The best means of personal protection from radiation for emergency responders is the implementation of three basic principles: time, distance, and shielding. Using the Inverse Square Law of radiation, what Geiger counter reading would you get for a radioactive material when you are four feet from the source (assume an initial reading of 6300 R at a distance of 1 foot from the source)? __________ R
Question 62. What are the products formed when nitroglycerin undergoes hydrolysis? 1) __________ and 2) __________.
Question 63. Potassium-42 is a radioisotope that nutritionists use to determine whether the body is effectively using potassium at the cellular level. The half-life of potassium-42 is 12.4 hours. Assuming that a patient's cells assimilate all the potassium chloride tagged with potassium-42, approximately what percentage of the dose remains in 2.1 days? __________ .
Question 64. When washed into a drain, an azide could react with the lead in the piping to form lead azide. Because the detonation of lead azide is likely to destroy a major portion of a sewer system, an azide should not be discharged into a drain. Waste lead azide exhibits the RCRA characteristic of 1) __________. Its treatment, storage, and disposal are regulated by what agency? 2) __________.
Question 65. The permissible exposure limit (PEL) over an 8-hr workday for trinitrotoluene and nitroglycerin are 1) __________ mg/m3 and 2) __________ mg/m3, respectively. Which of these explosives is more toxic? 3) __________.
Question 66. During the winter months, when the exchange of indoor and outdoor air is limited, 0.00002 mCi of radon is identified on average in each liter of air within a home. What is the World Health Organization's (WHO) action guideline in pCi/L for protection against acquiring cancer from exposure to radon? 1) __________ Does this concentration exceed the WHO's action guideline? 2) __________.
Question 67. Discuss the nuclear reactions within the reactor of a nuclear power plant? Contrast the Three Mile Island, Chernobyl, and Fukushima Da-Ichi incidents with respect to the cause of the incident and radiation levels measured after the incident.
Question 68. Develop an answer to each of the following explosive related questions, using at least 200 words total for parts a and b. Paraphrased and/or quoted materials must have accompanying in-text and reference citations in APA format.
The DOT regulation at 49 C.F.R. §177.835(a) requires shippers and carriers to load and unload explosives from a motor vehicle only when the engine is not operating.
What is the most likely reason DOT prohibits operation of the vehicle's engine during these processes?
During an inspection of an abandoned site, a fire marshal discovers the presence of several dynamite sticks within a locked shed attached to a warehouse. Although some sticks are packed within a wooden box, others are lying on shelves. On checking the city's records, the fire marshal discovers that the building was abandoned 22 years earlier. What immediate actions should the marshal take to protect public health, safety, and the environment? Aside from the explosive nature, discuss the health effects associated with its component nitroglycerin.