Underlying trading at $100, and $20 annualized implied volatility. You think IV is too low and decide to buy a 90-110 strangle with 3 months to expiration (DTE=63).
(Hint: a strangle is a combination of OTM PUT and OTM CALL.)
Assume interest rate of zero and normal distribution of prices.
You think $20 annual vol is too low. You believe a fair annual vol should be $40. What is the statistically fair value of the strangle at $40 vol?