As for governments representing the people, there are so many types of representative governments. Do you believe Kant expected all states to have a similar government or would he have been more flexible with his definition of a republican government? As for governments representing the people, there are so many types of representative governments. Do you believe Kant expected all states to have a similar government or would he have been more flexible with his definition of a republican government?
(One page single space possibly with footnotes to in text citation, if you do not quote then doesn't worry; use your own view to answer the question).