A fall in the value of the dollar against other currencies makesUS final goods and services cheaper to foreigners even though theUS aggregate price level stays the same. As a result,foreigners demand more American output. Your study partnersays that this represents a movement down the aggregate demandcurve because foreigners are demanding more in reponse to a lowerprice. You insist tht this represents a rightward shift of the aggregate demand curve. Who is right? Why?