A and B orally agreed on the sale of some “items” for $800. A immediately sent B a letter spelling out the agreed terms, which B received the next day. B called A and explained that A’s letter misstated the terms and that B no longer wanted the “items.” A sued B for breach of contract a month after the phone call. (1) What result should occur and why? (2) What difference would there be if B had sent a letter objecting to A’s terms and spelled out his understanding of the terms, A received it but A didn’t’ respond and B sued A based on B’s terms?