Why value of MPC is not greater than one
Why the value of MPC is not greater than 1? Answer: This is because change in consumption can never be more than change in income.
Why the value of MPC is not greater than 1?
Answer: This is because change in consumption can never be more than change in income.
‘The country is at present in recession and this has led to worse tax revenue and high expenses. The effect is a huge deficit. The government decides to increase taxes and lower government expenses. Is this an excellent idea?’
Methadone programs for addicts are intended at reducing illegal heroin traffic through: (i) decreasing the heroin supply. (ii) increasing the price of heroin. (iii) decreasing the demand for heroin. (iv) executing drug dealers. Hel
Can someone help me in finding out the right answer from the given options. The substitution effect is fully explained when: (i) Brandon just eat tofu since he is on a diet. (ii) A rise in the price of corn chips drives up demand for the salsa. (iii)
Diminishing prices will raise total revenue from DVD game sales at each and every price: (1) On this demand curve. (2) Beneath $25. (3) Above $25. (4) Beneath $30. Q : Problem on slope of demand curve The The demand curve for DVD games is a straight line, therefore its slope: (1) Is constant, although price elasticity of demand drops/falls as output increases. (2) Price elasticity are both stable. (3) Is constant, although price elasticity of demand increases as the pr
The demand curve for DVD games is a straight line, therefore its slope: (1) Is constant, although price elasticity of demand drops/falls as output increases. (2) Price elasticity are both stable. (3) Is constant, although price elasticity of demand increases as the pr
The consumer reaches equilibrium for any two goods X and Y whenever the: (1) MUx/Px = MUy/Py. (2) MUx/MUy = Py/Px. (3) Utility from X equivalents the utility produced by Y. (4) Point of diminishing returns is arrived at. Can someon
Does a surplus of AD over AS always entail a condition of inflationary gap? Answer: No. Inflationary gap takes place only if AD > AS equivalent to full employmen
The consumer gains from being capable to purchase at a single price rather than paying all that the particular quantity of the good is subjectively worth are: (i) Adverse selections. (ii) Market exploitation. (iii) Consumer surpluses. (iv) Moral hazards.
Illustrations of macroeconomic aggregates would NOT consist of the: (1) tax responsibilities of a family. (2) unemployment rate. (3) level of national income. (4) supply of money. (5) rate of inflation. Can someone
Define the term Supply curve.
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