Why indifference curve is convex
Why the indifference curve is convex to origin?
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The Indifference curve is always convex to the origin due to diminishing marginal rate of substitution.
Can someone help me in finding out the most precise answer from the given options. The error of commission would be: (1) Student forgets to study for the test. (2) The decision not to make a product which another company later generates successfully. (3) The company s
Within this "kinked-demand curve" model, that firm views the demand curve this faces as the: (w) linear "kinked" demand curve aD2 for all prices. (x) linear "kinked" demand curve D1D1 for all prices. (y) nonlinear "kin
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Unless this chooses to shut down since demand never exceeds average variable costs, in that case a profit-maximizing monopolist makes output where: (i) marginal revenue equals marginal costs [MR = MC]. (ii) marginal revenue minus marg
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Most monopolists whom do not price discriminate and that operate effectively in the long run are capable to charge a price: (w) greater than minimum average total costs [ATC]. (x) less than MR. (y) less than marginal costs [MC]. (z) less than which of
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