Why indifference curve is convex
Why the indifference curve is convex to origin?
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The Indifference curve is always convex to the origin due to diminishing marginal rate of substitution.
Seller’s markets frequently exist when: (i) There are extensive surpluses. (ii) Prices are increasing. (iii) The government enforces price floors. (iv) Inventories are much high. Can someone please help me in finding out the
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A profit-maximizing monopolistically competitive firm will operate where is: (w) MR > MC. (x) MR = MC. (y) P < MR. (z) P < MC. Can anybody suggest me the proper explanation for given problem regarding
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