Strategy of Bear Spread

State when markets are anticipated to go down then what is the Strategy of Bear Spread?

E

Expert

Verified

This strategy is deployed when the investors have a bearish attitude about the market and expect that the markets would fall in the short term. To pursue this strategy, the trader takes an opposite position i.e. sells a call option with lower exercise price while buys a call option that has the higher strike price. Therefore there is a net premium inflow initially which can be expressed as the difference of the premiums of the 2 call options. Through the use of puts also, the strategy can be structured and accordingly the payoffs as well as profits from this strategy are deduced using put options.

In case that puts are used, initially the strategy would lead to a net outflow of premium as the trader buys the put that has the higher exercise price (K2) and also shorts the put that has a lower strike price (K1). Since puts whose exercise prices are higher are more expensive in contrast to put options that have lower strike prices, there is a net premium outflow at the start which can be represented by -p2 + p1. Accordingly, at expiration, the value of this strategy can be expressed as:

V = max (0, K2 – ST) – max (0, K1 – ST).

The profits that accrue on account of the above strategy are obtained by subtracting from the value of the strategies, the net premium outflow as shown under:

Profit = max (0, K2 – ST) – max (0, K1 – ST) – p2 + p1.

In contrast to the bull spread, profits in this situation result when the prices of the stock (the underlying asset) decline. Profits from the bear spread strategy are maximized only when the short position in the put expires worthless at expiration and there is a net payoff due to the long position in the put option. This strategy has been represented in the graph below:

1902_bear spread.jpg

As can be seen from the diagram, both the profits as well as the losses are limited in this case too, like the bull spread. The only difference is that the payoff occurs only when the stock prices go down and the bearish views of the trader hold good when the options expire. It can be seen here also that the maximum loss occurs when both the options expire worthless and are out of the money and the quantum of the maximum loss is p1 – p2. On the other hand, the maximum gain that occurs can be quantified as:

Maximum profit = K2 – K1 – p2 + p1.

Like the earlier case, it is essential to ensure that the differences in the strike prices of the options exceed the net premium which is paid at the onset to implement the bear strategy. In case of bear spread with calls, the profit occurs only when both the options expire worthless and this is feasible only if the stock price declines during expiration of the option. 

   Related Questions in Corporate Finance

  • Q : Cost of capital You have joined Zurich

    You have joined Zurich Pvt. Ltd as a Finance manager. You are given the following information: Zurich Pvt Ltd. is a diversified manufacturing firm dealing with electrical appliances. In 2012, the firm reported an operating income of Rs. 857.60 million and faced a tax rate of 35% on income. The

  • Q : Applied approaches to theory development

    Discuss and distinguish between the following applied approaches to theory development:  true-income (income statement and balance sheet approaches), efficient markets, and predictive ability.  You may want to include in your discussion any articles or studies that either supported or u

  • Q : Define Economy Impacts Economy Impacts

    Economy Impacts: An upcoming economy is indicated by rise in stock market, as stock market is primary indicator of a economic strength of a country. Progressing economy results in market boom. Yield of companies’ increases on improving economy,

  • Q : Porters Primary activities Porter’s

    Porter’s Primary activities: 1. Inbound Logistics: • Suppliers’ details.• Storage details with respect to materials.• Details regarding pl

  • Q : Did you see Vueling case Did you notice

    Did you notice the Vueling case? How is this possible that an investment bank sets the objective price of its shares in €2.50 per share upon the 2nd of October, 2007, just after replacing Vueling shares at €31 per share in J

  • Q : Explain exotic option-value of option

    Explain exotic option’s value of option pricing method.

  • Q : Explain undervaluation of share on the

    Suppose we calculate g as ROE (1–p)/(1–ROE (1–p)) and the Ke by the CAPM. We replace both values into the formula PER = (ROE (1+g) – g)/ROE (Ke-g) but there PER we obtain is fully different from the one we get by dividing the quotation of the s

  • Q : Illustrates reserves are real money or

    The part of the net income which is not distributed to shareholders goes to reserves (to shareholders’ equity). As dividends shows real money, reserves are real money as well. Is it true?

  • Q : Explain any indisputable model for

    Is there any indisputable model for valuing the brand of a company?

  • Q : Probability of dividend Universal

    Universal Corporation has the following dividend policy: if the earnings after taxes are less than $1 million, the dividend payout ratio will be 35%, but if these earnings are over $1 million, the dividend payout ratio will be 45%. The EBIT of Universal for next year

©TutorsGlobe All rights reserved 2022-2023.