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Reduction in the purchasing power of income

The income effect of a price rise for the normal good: (i) Needs a reduction in the purchasing power of your income, that helps in elucidating why demand curves are negatively sloped. (ii) Forces faster adjustments than when the good was inferior and insignificant to you. (iii) Your substitution effect is over-powered by an income effect and hence your demand curve is positively sloped. (iv) Elucidates why you encounter diminishing marginal utility at the low levels of consumption.

Can someone please help me in finding out the accurate answer from the above options.

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