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Rang of income elasticities of demand

The income elasticities of demand (μ) for items which most people consider as luxuries would possibly be into the range: (1) – ∞ < μ < one. (2) – 1 < μ < zero. (3) μ = zero. (4) 0 < μ < 1. (5) 1 < μ < ∞.

Can anybody suggest me the proper explanation for given problem regarding Economics generally?

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