--%>

Meaning of invisible hand according to Adam Smith

Adam Smith’s opinion of an “invisible hand” powerfully implies the meaning that: (w) pursuit of individual self interest must be controlled. (x) most people lose sight of what’s good for society. (y) most people are motivated primarily by social welfare. (z) competition channels self-interested behavior to serve all of society.

Can anybody suggest me the proper explanation for given problem regarding Economics generally?

   Related Questions in Business Economics

  • Q : What does financial leverage specify

    What does financial leverage specify? And also states its limitations?

  • Q : Exchange rate in purchasing power parity

    Question: In June 2005, a Big Mac sold for 6,000 pesos in Colombia and $3.00 in the United States.  The exchange rate in June 2005 was 2,300 pesos per US Dollar.  So, on Big Mac purchasing power parity gr

  • Q : Help How is a shift in demand reflected

    How is a shift in demand reflected in a demand equation? How is a shift in supply reflected in a supply equation? How is a movement along a demand (supply) curve reflected in a demand (supply) equation?

  • Q : Increase the overall effectiveness of

    How the government can increase the overall effectiveness of the market system?

  • Q : Invisible hand Describe the meaning of

    Describe the meaning of the term “invisible hand.”

  • Q : What are the determinants of demand

    What are the determinants of demand?

  • Q : Exchange is the necessary consequence

    Explain: “Exchange is the necessary consequence of specialization.”

  • Q : Circular flow model of the private

    I have a problem in economics on Circular flow model of the private sector. Please help me in the following question. The simple circular flow model of private sector doesn’t comprise: (i) Firms. (ii) Product markets. (iii) Government agencies.

  • Q : Average Revenue and Marginal Revenue

    When the market price is $25, then the average revenue of selling five units is: w) $5. x) $12.50. y) $25. z) $125. Please guys help me to solve out this type of problem regarding profit in a perfectly competitive market

  • Q : Why is speculation unlike arbitrage

    Speculation is unlike arbitrage since: (1) speculative buyers always break even. (2) speculation causes increased costs. (3) speculators bear no risk. (4) positive returns for speculators are not sure. (5) competitive speculation equa