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How economic doctrine relies on intermediary methods

I read in a sentence passed through the Supreme Court that, so as to value companies, economic doctrine relies upon intermediary methods among ‘Anglo-Saxon’ theoretical models and the practical models common in the United States and United Kingdom, and the criteria set through the Administration is the effect of a combination of both methods. It is fully different from what we have seen in class – is this correct?

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This is a mystery to that “economic doctrine” the Supreme Court refers to within its sentence. These methods referred to lack some basis.

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