How could prestigious investment bank advice investing
I have a doubt about the Enron case. How could this prestigious investment bank advice investing while the quotations of the shares were falling?
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The document you consider to be the report of an investment analyst. The analysts, like all individuals are concerned with predicting the future, are generally wrong 50 percent of the time. The value of report of an analyst is not in their recommendations (when the future were clear to them, they would not require to work as an analyst), although, for their analysis of the competition and company.
I have two valuations of the company that we set as an objective. Within one of them, the present value of tax shields (D Kd T) computed using Ku (required return to unlevered equity) and, in one, by using Kd (required return to debt). The second valuation is too high
Universal Corporation has the following dividend policy: if the earnings after taxes are less than $1 million, the dividend payout ratio will be 35%, but if these earnings are over $1 million, the dividend payout ratio will be 45%. The EBIT of Universal for next year
Which one model was great breakthrough for side of finance theory?
Is a valuation realized through a prestigious investment bank a scientifically approved result that any investor could utilize as a reference?
The 2010 income statements of Leggett and Platt, inc. reports net sales of $4,076.1 million in 2010 and $4,250 million in 2009. The balance sheet reports accounts and other receivables, net of $550.5 million at December 31, 2010 and $640.2 million at December 31, 2009
Which are the essential hypotheses so that valuations of the Economic Value Added (EVA) give similar results to discounting cash flows?
When valuing the shares of my company, I calculate the present value of the expected cash flows to shareholders moreover I add to the result obtained cash holdings and liquid investment. Is that correct?
Capital goods: Goods employed in producing other goods are termed as capital goods.
The market risk premium is difference among the historical return upon the stock market and the risk-free rate, for yearly. Why is this negative for some years?
Is this true that the cost of its equity is zero, if a company does not distribute dividends?
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