Let consider the law of demand. The idea that the higher price for a normal good will outcome in less of good being purchased never based logically on the: (1) Income effect, by which the higher price decreases the purchasing power of the income. (2) Demand for good falling since of the higher price. (3) Law of diminishing marginal utility. (4) Substitution effect, by which the higher price causes people to purchase other things.
Can someone please help me in finding out the accurate answer from the above options.