Could we explain that the shares’ value is intangible
Could we explain that the shares’ value is intangible?
Expert
Yes, we can say that. The value of the shares of a company shows the present value of the likely equity flows. At present, the expected (future) equity flows are intangibles. Therefore, the value of the shares is intangible (we cannot illustrates the same thing regarding their price). Affirming as there is only a part of their present value that is intangible is a mistake.
Financial Management: It means organizing, planning, directing and controlling the financial activities like procurement and use of funds of enterprise. This means exerting general management principles to the financial resources of enterprise. <
A middle income worker, with a dependent spouse older than the normal retirement age, retired in January 2004. In the year prior to retirement, her gross monthly earnings were $1,500. Her Social Security pension benefit is $1,000 per month. Prior to retirement, she was subject to total taxes on her
which type of tax, direct or indirect is applicable in underdeveloped countries? Why? Show your critical areas and weaknesses.
What did ‘better’ mean specified with Markowitz questioned regarding portfolio selection?
Explain the result of volatility structure.
The dividend is the part of the net income which the company distributes to shareholders. When the dividend shows real money, the net income is also real money. Is it true?
ABC Corp is issuing a 10-year bond with a coupon rate of 7 %. The interest rate for similar bonds is at present 9 %. Supposing annual payments, what is the current value of the bond? (Round to the closest dollar.) (a) $872 (b) $1,066 (c) $990 (d) $945. Q : Explain market efficiency hypothesis According to what I read inside a book, market efficiency hypothesis means that the expected average value of variations is zero in the shares price. Thus, the best estimate of the future price of a share is its price now, as this incorporates all the available inform
According to what I read inside a book, market efficiency hypothesis means that the expected average value of variations is zero in the shares price. Thus, the best estimate of the future price of a share is its price now, as this incorporates all the available inform
Who explained put–call parity?
Is this possible to use different WACCs within order to discount each year’s flows? In which cases?
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