Calculated Free Cash Flow
I think Free Cash Flow (FCF) can be acquired from the Equity Cash Flow (CFac) using the relation as: FCF = CFac + Interests – ΔD. Is it true?
Expert
No, it is not true that, the free cash flow (FCF) and the flow to shares (CFac) prove the given relationship: CFac = FCF + ?D – Interests (1–T).
Does financial leverage (i.e. debt) have any influence on the Free Cash Flow, upon the Cash Flow to Shareholders, upon the growth of the company and upon the value of the shares?
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