The labor supply curve facing a firm or industry is all the time upward sloping still when individual labor supply curves are backward bending since: (w) at higher wages everyone will supply more hours of work. (x) firms never pay wages high adequate to generate the theoretical backward bending portion of labor supply curves. (y) at higher wages, there will be new entrants in the labor market. (z) the work/leisure trade off does not apply into the aggregate.
Can anybody suggest me the proper explanation for given problem regarding Economics generally?